Strengths of Realism

                                   

 

Strengths of Realism

 

 

Realism and anti-realism are conventionally presented as dichotomous: you must be either one or the other with nothing in between. This is supposed true across the board, from material objects to moral values. But on reflection the dichotomy is too simple—there are finer distinctions to capture. We can approach the matter by examining the paradigm case: realism and anti-realism about the external world. What is it to be a realist about material objects? Several points might be mentioned: propositions about material objects must be logically independent of propositions about sense experience; material objects must be the cause of sense experiences; material objects cannot be mental constructions of any kind; material objects must differ in their intrinsic nature from sense experiences; material objects must exist in a different space (or region of space) from that occupied by sense experiences; material objects must pre-exist and post-exist sense experiences; material objects must have properties that sense experience does not reveal or perhaps cannot reveal. These points affirm that material objects in no way reduce to or depend upon sense experiences; and they are precisely what is denied by someone who cleaves to an anti-realist view of them. So realism here consists in a conjunction of separate claims that are not necessarily jointly true. Consider Berkley’s idealism: he regards so-called material objects as ideas in the mind of God that can exist whether we have corresponding ideas or not, but he does not suppose that they have an intrinsically different nature from sense experiences, since that is what they are. He also believes they exist in a space separate from that occupied by human minds, but he doesn’t think they pre-exist existence in God’s mind. Nor does he hold that propositions about material objects are logically independent of propositions about God’s mind. So is Berkeley a realist or an anti-realist? The question has no sensible answer: he accepts some of the claims of the cluster I mentioned but not all. It seems right to say that he is not so strong a realist as someone who accepts all the claims of the cluster but that he is also not an outright anti-realist who rejects all of them. We might say (not very illuminatingly) that he is a weak realist about material objects, and then go on to specify exactly what claims he accepts and what he rejects. The traditional dichotomy is just too crude to capture the full range of metaphysical opinion in this case.

            Or consider realism and anti-realism about the mind itself. You can hold that there is nothing in the mind except what shows itself in actual behavior; or you can weaken this to maintain that mental states consist in dispositions to behavior; or you can identify mental states with brain states that underlie such dispositions; or you can hold that it must be at least logically possible to manifest a mental state behaviorally. Correspondingly, you can assert that mental states exist in a separate immaterial substance that is logically independent of the body and behavior, or you can weaken this position in various ways. The result is a spectrum of possible positions not a simple dichotomy. Some positions are intuitively more realist than others. The closer the position gets to the analogous position with respect to material objects the more or less realist it becomes (existing in a separate space and having a different intrinsic nature make the position strongly realist). But it is artificial and distorting to try to force a position into one or the other of two categories, realist or anti-realist. Someone might reasonably maintain that he is moderately realist about X but not mad-dog realist about X —soft-core but not heavy-duty. On a realism scale of 1 to 10, he might describe himself as a 7.

            Much the same pattern is discernible with respect to mathematical realism. You can be an extreme platonic realist holding that numbers exist in a separate sphere difficult to reach from the human point of view, eternal and unchanging, far from the madding crowd of empirical particulars; or you can weaken this position in various ways, holding (say) that numbers are constructions from sets of particulars combined with logic, or even concrete aggregates of particulars. Again, there is room for manoeuver in articulating a position deserving the name of realism, with some positions stronger than others. An anti-realist might accept nominalism or some form of psychologism, where again different strengths of position might be distinguished (for example, numbers are nothing but actual inscriptions in contrast to possible inscriptions). There is a wide spectrum of possible positions that may be adopted and it would be procrustean to try to force all of them into one of two categories. Similarly with scientific realism: one might hold that unobservable entities are real and causal while also holding that they consist in potentialities not actualities; or one might accept particles as real but jib at fields. There is room for half-hearted scientific realism as well as the full-throated kind.

            I have made these points as a preparation for considering moral realism. For here there are difficult questions of formulation and it is helpful to have a clear view of the full range of options. We don’t want to lapse into anti-realism just because we have a limited view of the varieties of moral realism. If we want to keep the analogy with the external world, which gives the issue clarity and bite, we need to identify features of the moral case that match the features I listed earlier—such as intrinsic difference of ontological kind or separation in space. Thus moral values may be said to exist at some remove from the moral subject and to differ in kind from any fact about that subject. They must also pre-exist recognition by the subject and be logically independent of anything she might believe, feel, or experience. Presumably they will not be said to act as causes, but that view is logically available under some ingenious conception of causation. Moral values might exist and yet not be discoverable by moral agents, and they may be quite other than what is generally believed. Again, it is possible to endorse some of these claims but not others: for example, one might hold that what is morally right cannot be inferred from what people believe but that morality must be in principle accessible to moral believers—belief-independent but not completely mind-independent. One might believe in Plato’s Form of the Good or in Moore’s indefinable non-natural property of goodness; but it would also be possible to style oneself a moral realist while rejecting such views, opting instead for a view in which the existence of objective reasons constitutes the sole content of a reasonable moral realism. There is no point in fighting over labels, which is a temptation if the issue is conceived dichotomously; better to accept a plurality of possible views each inviting the label “realism”. Some types of moral realism will be stronger than others, i.e. closer to the paradigm of realism about material objects. To insist that certain views are not really realist is to be in thrall to binary thinking, though no doubt certain views will count as anti-realist if any view does (emotivism, for instance).  [1]

            One response to these observations would be to abandon all talk of realism and anti-realism as misleadingly simplistic; and that response is not without its merits. But then there is the question of what might be put in its place—what other terminology could we use? And the current terminology is not without intuitive force, especially in conjunction with the paradigm supplied by the external world. To be a realist is definitely to be an identifiable kind of thing—to adopt an intelligible position. The concept is not empty. It is just that it is not quite as black and white as it has seemed from traditional debates. We need to make room for the partial, qualified, and week-kneed realist—as well as the modest and lukewarm anti-realist. Certainly, we must avoid pinning caricatures on positions that attract the label “realist”, as if anything so called must be of the most extreme and implausible kind.                

 

  [1] In ethics we find a contrast between subjectivism and objectivism, as well as between relativism and absolutism, but we don’t find these contrasts in the case of the external world and other subject matters. It is an interesting question why this is so, but it must surely be connected to the fact that there is a strong tendency in ethics for people to believe that thinking it makes it so, which is not the case for the external world. Thus moral realism is often framed as the denial that moral belief implies moral truth (suitably relativized). I would prefer to label this position “moral objectivism” and keep the label “moral realism” for views that model ethics more closely on the external world: but this is all a matter of words (not that words can’t be philosophically important).

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Speechless Language

                                   

 

Speechless Language

 

 

Normally when a human being learns a language he or she learns to speak and be spoken to. Sounds are produced and understood. An acoustic ability is acquired. But this is not always so: some people learn language (e.g. the English language) without the aid of sound. They neither hear sound nor produce it. Instead they rely upon vision and gesture (or writing). Their language ability is not notably inferior to those that speak and hear. What does this tell us about human language? What, in particular, does it show about the initial state of the human language faculty?

            Presumably there is no analogous phenomenon in the case of other species that use language (or a communicative symbol system). A deaf and mute bird doesn’t cleverly exploit its eyes to substitute for hearing sounds, resorting to a sign language or the written word. Similarly for whales, dolphins, and bees. For these species if you can’t speak you don’t have a usable language (dance in the case of bees). The innate language faculty is specifically geared to speech—to a particular sensory-motor system. There is no flexibility in mode of expression and reception, unlike with humans. Does this mean that human language ability is intrinsically purely cognitive? Is speech just a learned add-on to innate linguistic competence? We learn to speak in a particular accent in a particular language, but this is not a matter of innate endowment—is it the same for the sense modality we adopt? Each of us could have learned to communicate by sight and gesture, and without much difficulty, so is the human language faculty neutral with respect to sense modality? Is it just a convention or accident that we end up speakinglanguage? Could it even be that our language faculty initially evolved as a visual-gestural system and only later became connected to our ears and vocal organs?  [1] What if most people used a non-auditory medium for language—wouldn’t we then suppose that this is the “natural” way to communicate? We have chosen the acoustic route, but we could have gone visual without loss or inconvenience. Is the language faculty inherently indifferent to its mode of externalization? It certainly isn’t indifferent to syntax and semantics, but phonetics seems like one option among others.

            It seems true to say that human language (unlike the language of other species) is more of a cognitive phenomenon than a sensory-motor one. For one thing, we use language in inner monologue not just in communication with others (I doubt this is true of bees and whales). The structure of language is a cognitive structure that can be present in a variety of sensory-motor contexts. But it would surely be wrong to suggest that we are not genetically disposed to speak: speech is biologically programmed in humans and it follows a fixed maturational schedule. Human speech organs are designed to aid speech; they are not just accidentally coopted for this purpose.  [2] We don’t need to use these organs in order to master language, but it is surely natural that we do—it is certainly not a conscious choice!  So is the human language faculty inherently acoustic or not? Neither alternative looks very plausible: it is possible (easy) to learn language without sounds and we are built to favor sounds. One might suppose that the case is somewhat like walking on the hands when born without functioning legs—an option of last resort. Do the deaf feel an inclination to speak and listen as infants, but find they cannot, and so resort to sign language? That doesn’t appear to be the case—they take quite naturally to the visual medium. There is certainly something modality-neutral about human language. On the other hand, we are clearly designed to speak—as we are not designed to play cricket.

            Here is a possible theory: humans have two language faculties, one cognitive, and the other sensory-motor. Call this the dual capacity theory. Both are innate and genetically coded, but they can be disassociated, as they are in the deaf. We are familiar with the idea of distinct components in language mastery—the semantic component, the syntactic component, and the phonetic component—well, there are actually two linguistic faculties coded into our genes. This idea will not surprise those who favor the notion of a language of thought: this language might exist separately from our language of communication in our mental economy. They might not even have the same grammar. What the dual capacity theory suggests is that the faculty we use when we speak is itself divided into two—and the deaf use one of them but not the other. They use the same innate grammar as the rest of us, but they don’t use the same sensory-motor system (though there is no reason to deny that it is programmed into their genes). The eliciting or triggering stimulus for normal language development isn’t operative in their case, but they use exactly the same internal schematism. This explains why their language skills are comparable to the sound dependent, while not denying that speech is the natural human condition (in a non-evaluative sense). That is, we are born to speak, but we don’t have to in order to master communicative language. There are two separate psychological modules. It would be possible in principle to retain the sensory-motor module while lacking the cognitive module, so that articulate speech is possible but there is no real understanding of the principles of grammar (this would be like those “talking” parrots).  [3] Thus there can be double dissociation. Quite possibly the two modules evolved separately: maybe the cognitive module initially evolved as an intrapersonal aid to thought, to be followed later by a communicative faculty that recruited the older faculty. We tend to speak of the language faculty, as if we are dealing with a unitary structure, but in fact there are two of them—there is more structure here than we thought. The cognitive faculty has nothing intrinsically to do with speech, though it obviously gets hooked up to speech during ontogenesis, while the sensory-motor faculty has everything to do with speech. No such duality obtains in the case of other linguistic species, which is evidenced by the fact that deafness spells an end to language ability for them. At its core, we might say, human language is not a sensory-motor capacity—though there is nothing wrong with saying that speech embodies linguistic competence. We really have two kinds of competence (and two kinds of performance): competence in the universal principles of grammar, possessed by the hearing and the non-hearing alike; and competence in the production and perception of speech. The former has nothing intrinsically to do with the ears and vocal organs, while the latter is dedicated to that sensory-motor system. When it is said that a language is a pairing of sound and meaning that is strictly speaking inaccurate (witness sign language), but it is true enough that the understanding of speech is such a pairing. Clarity is served by firmly distinguishing language and speech, but there is no need to deny that speech is the operation of a language faculty. To put it crudely, “language” is ambiguous.

            The case might be compared to memory. We speak loosely of “the faculty of memory” but enquiry reveals that different things might be meant—there is not a single faculty of memory. There is long-term memory and short-term memory (and maybe others): these memory systems operate differently, permit of double dissociation, and no doubt have different genetic bases. Both are rightly designated “memory” and they have clear connections, with neither deserving the name more than the other, but they are distinct psychological faculties. Similarly, “language” applies to two psychological faculties, which can be dissociated, and which recruit different kinds of apparatus. When someone makes a general statement about “language”, we do well to ask him what human faculty he is referring to–speech or the more general capacity possessed by the deaf. Indeed, even that is too parochial, since we can conceive of language users who don’t have sight either but communicate by means of touch: they too have mastery of the grammar of human language (both universal and particular), but they don’t hear or see the words of language—they feel words (and cause others to feel them too). Their underlying linguistic competence is more “abstract” than any particular sense modality: but so is ours, despite our saturation in the acoustic. What is truly universal in human language is this abstract faculty that exists in people with different modes of expressing it—universals of speech are relatively confined.

            Once we have made this distinction we can distinguish different domains of study: are we studying the universal abstract language faculty or are we studying its expression in specific peripheral sensory-motor systems? What is called “psycholinguistics” could be about either of these. Which properties of language belong to which faculty? No doubt the type of externalization will impose specific conditions on the form of what is expressed, but there will probably be universal patterns found across all modes of externalization (subject-predicate structure, say).  [4] The temporal dimension of speech will affect its structure, along with the memory limits that accompany this, while the recursive property is likely to stem from the internal universal language. Combining phonemes is not the same as combining the lexical elements that constitute the common human language. Particularly intriguing is the question of maturation: do the two language faculties develop in the same way and at the same time? It could be that the internal language develops more rapidly and serves as the foundation for the development of speech (or sign language). It is not constrained by motor maturation and may be more “adult” than its external counterpart. If we think of language development as a process of differentiation, it may differentiate at a different rate from external speech—and proceed from a different basis. It may permit inner speech before the onset of outer speech. We certainly can’t infer its maturational schedule just by observing the growth of outer speech. With respect to evolution, it may be that the cognitive language faculty evolved much earlier than the vocal language faculty, which is thought to be relatively recent (about 200,000 years ago). We might have been using language for much longer than we have been speaking it. The larynx is a late accretion to language use, and a dispensable one.  [5]

 

  [1] I consider this hypothesis in Prehension (2015).

  [2] Caution: not originally so designed—vocalization long preceded speech in humans—but refined in the direction of speech since speech began (compare hands and tools).

  [3] It is a question how language-like the sensory-motor system would be without the backing of the cognitive system. Subtracting speech from the human subject leaves language intact, as shown by the deaf, but what if we subtract the internal language faculty from the activity of speech?  Would we still have full productivity? Would grammar really exist for the sounds that emanate? This is an empirical question and not an easy one to answer. My suspicion is that we would get substantial degradation, but it may be that humans have evolved a good deal of autonomy in the speech centers of the brain, so that speech might exhibit many of the properties of the internal modality-neutral language faculty. Just as language ability is largely independent of general intelligence, so speech ability might be largely independent of cognitive-language ability. Certainly it is logically possible for there to be an autonomous faculty of productive grammatical speech in addition to a similar faculty for the inward employment of language—that is, one faculty for speaking and another for thinking in words.  The question is like the question of how much of perception would survive without cognition.

  [4] Chomsky makes this point. The internal language could be a lot simpler, structurally, than external speech, because of the constraints imposed by the sensory-motor system. There might be no gap between deep and surface structure in the internal language, with no transformations linking them.

  [5] To simplify somewhat, there are three possible positions: language is only speech (traditional linguistics); language isn’t speech at all (Chomsky today); language is both speech and something else (an internal cognitive structure) (me). These questions remain murky and it is helpful to open up the theoretical options, though the speech-centric position is surely indefensible. (I’m grateful to Noam Chomsky for helpful comments.)

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Skepticism About the Conceptual World

 

 

 

Skepticism About the Conceptual World

 

 

I will describe a startling new form of skepticism, to be set beside more familiar forms. It lurks beneath the surface of recent work on meaning and reference. Consider “water”: it has both a meaning (sense, connotation) and a reference (denotation, extension). Suppose its meaning is equivalent to “tasteless transparent liquid found in lakes and flowing from taps”. These are the properties a typical speaker associates with the word (its “stereotype”). Combining these words with “water” produces an analytic a priori truth. They provide an analysis of the concept we associate with “water”. Yet they are not epistemically necessary: it could turn out that water is none of these things, as it could turn out that water is not H2O. Perhaps we have all been under a giant illusion about these properties of water: by some quirk of our nervous system a yellowish lemony-tasting liquid has appeared to be transparent and tasteless, and what fills lakes and flows from taps is some other liquid than water. These possibilities are not beyond the powers of an evil demon to contrive. We cannot be certain that water has the properties we typically associate with it—mistakes are possible, illusions conceivable. Water might turn out to have none of the properties included in its stereotype, i.e. its meaning or connotation. Yet we would still be referring to water by “water”, whatever water is. The reason this is possible is that we fix the reference of “water” in a certain way, namely by pointing to a sample of a certain natural kind and saying, “Let ‘water’ designate whatever natural kind underlies these appearances”—whether those appearances are veridical or not. We might thus have successfully referred to a certain liquid and yet acquired quite false beliefs about its properties. Reference is independent of opinion: appearances can be inaccurate even as reference succeeds. If we adopt a causal theory of reference, we can say that the reference-establishing causal relations are logically independent of whatever beliefs we form about the extension of the term. What this means is that the sentence “Water is a tasteless transparent liquid found in lakes and flowing from taps” is both analytic and conceivably false. It could be false because water might actually have none of these properties and yet the meaning we assign to the term includes them: they are contained in the connotation but the denotation lacks them. Thus we have an analytic but false statement—it makes a false ascription of properties to thing we refer to.

            Now consider skepticism. Hearing about the semantics of natural kind terms the skeptic will seize his chance: he will insist that all our natural kind terms are vulnerable to a skeptical doubt, namely that propositions formed from them are not knowable with certainty, even when analytic. We might be wrong that water is tasteless and transparent, that lightning is bright and precedes thunder, or that gold is shiny and malleable. These are characteristic skeptical claims, but the extra turn of the screw is that analytic truth does nothing to preserve them from skepticism. The semantics of the terms combines demonstrative reference with fallible descriptive stereotype, so that the reference could succeed while the stereotype is inaccurate. Sense (descriptive content) doesn’t determine reference, but it can generate analytic truths nonetheless. Since the descriptive content of sense is possibly erroneous, we can generate fallibly known analytic truths—we can’t be certain that these are truths. Water might turn out not to be what we suppose, however much what we suppose fixes its meaning (one aspect of it at least). In the extreme, water might be a bitter tasting dark-colored solid that has presented a totally misleading appearance to us all these years—so the skeptic will contend, and he is notoriously difficult to thwart. What we have been designating by the term is quite different from the way it appears (if one day the scales fell from our eyes, we would exclaim “So that’s what we’ve been drinking all this time!” while beholding a mud-like substance).

            How far can the skeptic push it? Consider knowledge (the word, the concept, and the thing): we customarily suppose that the meaning of “know” includes belief, truth, and justification—that is its sense or connotation. It also refers to a specific mental state of a person. We take it that this reference instantiates the properties contained in the meaning of the term—that it involves belief, truth, and justification. That’s what we mean and it instantiates. But the skeptic wants to know what makes us so sure that the thing we refer to has the properties we ascribe to it: why assume that the nature of the mental state that “know” refers to actually includes the properties we ascribe to it? Why couldn’t it be like the case of water? Suppose we are confronted by a sample of a certain mental kind and we announce, “Let ‘know’ refer to the mental state before us”, while believing that the state in question is an instance of true justified belief—maybe that’s just the way the sample happens to strike us. But suppose that, contrary to our impression, none of this is true: the state in question is unjustified belief in a falsehood, or not even belief at all but disbelief (the sample is being insincere in its assertions). Then the skeptic maintains by citing the semantics of natural kind terms we can say that knowledge is not true justified belief—the state we are referring to is unjustified false belief! Now the question is what we can say to rule this possibility out in our case: might it not turn out that knowledge is not true justified belief at all but false unjustified belief? This is epistemically possible, the skeptic contends, given the way the term “know” was introduced and given the facts of the case. So we should admit that it might turn out that knowledge is not true justified belief, because the term designates something quite different from what we supposed—we had false beliefs about the extension of the term as it actually was at the moment of reference-fixing. But that implies that the analytic truth “Knowledge is true justified belief” might turn out to be false, simply because the state originally designated lacked the properties we thought it had. Our false ideas entered its meaning, but reality failed to confirm these ideas. The proposition might be analytic but false, and the skeptic wants to know what we can say to rule out this possibility. Of course, it is also epistemically possible that knowledge is true justified belief, but the skeptic is asking why we prefer that alternative to his skeptical possibility. We should be agnostic.

            Or consider “bachelor” and suppose that the initial sample is quite other than what the introducers of the term think: they think they are confronted with a bunch of unmarried males but in fact they are confronted by a group of married females. These individuals are masquerading as unmarried males while being just the opposite. The fooled introducers then stipulate, “Let the word ‘bachelor’ designate the marital and gender status of thisgroup”. They fix reference to the property of being married and female while mistakenly believing that the group in question is male and unmarried. Then the sentence “Bachelors are unmarried males” is false for these speakers, despite their firm belief in its truth. It may indeed be analytic in their language, but it is still false. And now the skeptic asks how we can rule this out in our own case: couldn’t it turn out that bachelors are married females? Maybe our ancestors introduced the term in the way described and thereby fixed its reference to married females; their beliefs were false of these individuals, but so what? Thus we today refer with “bachelor” to the natural kind of married females, even though we think we refer to married males. Or suppose all the people we have ever met who called themselves “bachelor” and gave every appearance of being male and unmarried were really married women in disguise—wouldn’t that tie down the reference to that group, not the group we thought we were referring to? If this is the way reference works in general, then such skepticism would seem indicated. It might turn out that bachelors are married females! It is not epistemically necessary that bachelors are unmarried males, despite the analyticity of the corresponding sentence. The skeptic thus extends his doubts to knowledge of analytic truths.

            Let us make explicit what is going on in this argument. On the one hand, we have the concept, an item in the mind; it contains various components, which fix the set of analytic truths with respect to that concept. On the other hand, we have the extension of the concept, an item in the world; it has a certain objective nature, which fixes its de re essence. We normally suppose there is a correspondence between these two levels: the components of the concept actually capture the objective nature of the thing designated. In the water case it is easy to see how this correspondence could be disrupted, because we can be wrong about the properties of the natural kinds we are referring to. The skeptic then seeks to extend this point to other concepts by adopting the same type of analysis: there is the concept we have of knowledge, and there is the fact of knowledge itself; but the former might not correspond to the latter—knowledge itself might not have the properties the concept ascribes to it. What guarantees that the objective thing has the properties we think it has? It might be like the case of water. Similarly, the concept we have of a triangle implies that triangles have three sides, but the skeptic conjures a scenario in which we introduce the term “triangle” in reference to things that are actually four-sided, thereby referring to such things with the word “triangle”. Then “Triangles are three-sided” would be analytic for us, given our beliefs, but actually false. And the skeptical question is how to demonstrate that our present use of “triangle” is not like this: maybe we actually refer to four-sided figures with the term “triangle”! Might we not one day discover that triangles have four sides, contrary to what we now believe? We might discover that we are brains in vats, and we might discover that we refer to quadrangles with “triangle”. That would be strange, to be sure, but not logically impossible.

            How could we respond to the skeptic? Gap closing is the obvious manoeuver: don’t let the concept and the property diverge. Then there will no logical space between what we think and what is. Thus we might identify the property with the concept: for x to have P is just for x to have C (correctly) ascribed to it. But this gives rise to an idealism that destroys objectivity—as is typically the case with this kind of counter to skepticism. Clearly there was water before there was the concept of water, and similarly for knowledge, triangles, and bachelors. At the other extreme we could try going radically externalist and make the concept nothing more than the property: then what is in the mind will not be separate from what is in the object. The trouble is that this will entail that we can’t be misled about the nature of water, or mistaken about what knowledge involves, because our concept will simply bewhatever these things are objectively. A more realistic suggestion is that there is a kind of pre-established harmony between the concept and the property: the constituents of the concept necessarily correspond to the constituents of the fact (the nature of the property). But again, this fails to allow both for error and for incompleteness: our concept may misrepresent the property and it may fail to exhaust its nature. For example, there may be more to knowledge than we think, and our conception of knowledge may be inaccurate in some respects. This is precisely what the skeptic is capitalizing on by pointing out the epistemic possibilities: water may not be as we suppose it to be, no matter how central to our concept a certain feature is; and similarly for other natural kinds. His point is that analytic containment in the concept is no proof against the possibility of such errors about reality. The world contains various phenomena and we are trying to capture them in our concepts, but we may fail; so it might always turn out that things are not as we take them to be. Water might not be transparent, knowledge might not be true, triangles might not have three sides. Of course, if these things have those properties, then it is plausible that they have them necessarily; but the question is whether we know with certainty that they do, and the skeptic finds reason to doubt this. Metaphysical necessity does not imply epistemic necessity.

            It might be said that the underlying semantics presupposed by the skeptic applies to semantically simple expressions like proper names and natural kind terms but that not all terms fit this mold. The former terms denote by mechanisms independent of their descriptive content, which forms a separate component of meaning; but terms like “knowledge” and “triangle” and “bachelor” don’t work like that—here the descriptive content is active in fixing reference. Thus the meaning of “know” must imply truth in knowledge itself because that is simply how the term determines its reference—“know” refers by definition to what is believed and true (etc.). It is semantically complex and works as a logical conjunction of conditions, unlike a proper name. This, however, is all very debatable and anyway faces an obvious retort: what about the simple elements that make up the meaning of the term? These will be subject to the same skeptical argument that we started with: maybe “believe” and “true” denote properties other than we suppose because they were introduced under conditions of fallibility. We announce “Let ‘believe’ denote that mental state” in front of a sample, convinced that we are referring to a state of internal assent, but in fact our sample is in a state of suspended assent or outright dissent. We don’t have infallible access to other minds! Same for triangles (so we can’t wriggle out of the problem by appealing to introspective authority): we suppose there are three-sided figures in front of us and we stipulate that “triangle” refers to that geometrical form, pointing at the sample; but in fact we are suffering from a visual illusion and four-sided figures constitute the sample. The skeptic is saying that we can always misrepresent the properties of the sample that forms our semantic anchor, which is why it may turn out that we have actually done so. Analytic containment in the concept is no protection against this possibility. Skepticism about the external world thus generalizes to skepticism about what we regard as definitional. That is to say, we can be wrong about the essence of things as well as about their accidental properties, even when that essence is supposedly contained in our concepts. Since complex concepts resolve into simpler ones, the skeptical problem can always recur at the basic level.

            This skeptical problem deserves to be called a skeptical paradox because whether or not I know anything I surely know what it would be to have knowledge—I surely know that I cannot know what I disbelieve or what is false! Similarly, I may not know whether there are any triangles in nature but I surely know what a triangle is—I know it’s not a circle! But the skeptic is denying, startlingly, that I do have such knowledge; his claim is that it is epistemically possible that knowledge is not of truths and doesn’t require belief. We just don’t have that degree of apodictic insight into the nature of the things in question; we merely conjecture that this is the nature of what we refer to. We may be profoundly ignorant of the objective nature of the kinds of which we speak. Philosophers took it for granted that knowledge of analytic truths is free from skeptical doubt, but it turns out that they are swallowed up too. How far can this skepticism go? What about our knowledge of what “red” means, or “plus” or “and” or “ought”: can we conceive of scenarios in which people are radically mistaken about what these terms designate? Could it turn out that genocide falls into the extension of “good”? Could “red” turn out to designate blue? Could “and” mean disjunction? These would be paradoxical results indeed, so any skepticism that implied such things would deserve that label.  [1]

            The skepticism I have been expounding doesn’t apply to our knowledge of our concepts as such: we canknow with certainty what our concepts contain. We know with certainty that our concept of water includes being transparent and tasteless, and similarly for our concept of knowledge in relation to truth. The skeptic questions the move from this to our putative knowledge of the reference of our concepts—whether we know that water itself is transparent and tasteless, or that knowledge itself involves truth. What holds of the concept is not the same as what holds of the object it refers to. Thus I can be certain of analytic truths in so far as they concern what is true of my concepts, but I can’t (with certainty) infer from this anything about the essence of what I am referring to with these concepts. Hence (according to the skeptic) water might turn out not to be transparent and knowledge might turn out not to be true and triangles might turn out not to have three sides.  [2]

 

Colin McGinn

                                       

 

 

 

 

 

  [1] Note that the skepticism I am considering does not contend that there is no fact of the matter about what words mean, only that we cannot know such facts. We could be radically mistaken about what words actually do mean.

  [2] I have said nothing here about skepticism concerning rule following, as expounded in Saul Kripke’s Wittgenstein on Rules and Private Language (1982), but that is certainly a useful comparison point for the skepticism presented here (they are not at all the same thing).

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Sexual Knowledge

                                               

 

 

Sexual Knowledge

 

 

In endnote [A] to An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding Hume asks: “I should desire to know, what can be meant by asserting, that self-love, or resentment of injuries, or the passion between the sexes is not innate?” He clearly thinks that these “ideas” (Locke’s term) are innate, so that they are not learned by experience or instruction. In particular, sexual passion is present innately, though it may not reveal itself until well after birth. We should not suppose that Hume means only some kind of non-cognitive drive for sex: he must mean that the affective-cognitive package of sexual passion is innate, including certain kinds of knowledge. Sexual passion includes the desire to do various specific bodily things, so it will involve some kind of mental representation of these things. It will involve knowledge of what to do sexually—what goes where, and so on. Thus some conception of the anatomy of the object of this passion will be installed in the mind prior to all experience. In short: sexual knowledge is innate.

            Presumably this thesis will not be disputed in the case of animals. It is hardly to be supposed that dogs and cats, to take only the animals most familiar to us, learn how to have sex by means of observation or instruction: they are not in the dark about the mechanics of sex until they see other animals doing it or receive a “sex talk” from their elders. No, they know instinctively what to do—which is just what you would think the genes would program. Just as cats know instinctively how to fight and groom, so they instinctively know how to have sex. And not only the sexual act itself but also what leads up to it and what may follow it—they also know innately how to court and parent. This knowledge lies dormant till maturity, but it is encoded in the genes nevertheless. It is as instinctive as eating and breathing, walking and sleeping. Animals must have an innately fixed mental model of the opposite sex’s anatomy along with an action plan to guide their behavior. This innate system will be species-specific: cats and dogs don’t have mental representations of the anatomy of elephants or reptiles. They have a dedicated module for sexual activity equipped with suitable cognitive structures. Compare the human language faculty: a species-specific modular mental structure present at birth. This is just what you would expect given the importance of sexual know-how right off the bat (what would happen, or not happen, if an aroused animal had never observed an act of intercourse and had no innate knowledge of what it involves?).

            Plato, Descartes, Leibniz, and Chomsky didn’t consider sexual knowledge, preferring to talk about knowledge of mathematics or grammar, but it is clear that they would agree with sexual nativism.  [1] Poverty of the stimulus applies here, as well as uniformity within a species, brevity of the learning period, spontaneous emergence, etc. Also there is a complexity to sexual knowledge that is easy to miss: it is not just a simple matter of stimulus and response. When animals mate they have to negotiate each other in all sorts of ways, conducting an elaborate series of actions leading to a specific goal, preceded by appropriate courtship (think bower birds). The actions involved are not simply elicited by impinging stimuli but are carefully controlled by perception of the prevailing circumstances, involving knowledge of fertility and the correct way to mount and be mounted, as well as what to do once coitus is complete. As parenting is a highly structured activity, so is copulating. Neither is simply the mechanical product of randomly impinging stimuli. I am sure that if animals were artificially prevented from observing the sexual behavior of other animals they would still know how to have intercourse when the time is ripe. So we should add sexual knowledge to the list of other things now generally considered innate; and perhaps it could serve as the basic model for the nativist position, given its obviousness (compared to ethical knowledge, say).

            Returning to humans, picture Adam and Eve: they have never heard of sexual intercourse and certainly never observed it in others. No one has ever taught them about the birds and bees. According to the empiricist, they know nothing of sex and are clueless about how it should be performed—as they are ignorant of tennis and how it should be performed. According to the nativist, they are already equipped with sexual knowledge (God would not leave them sexually ignorant, given the importance of reproduction for the human race). They innately desire sex and they innately know what to do to satisfy that desire—no need to experiment with various bodily entanglements in a process of trial and error. Genital pleasure will certainly offer them some guidance, but it will not by itself be sufficient to explain their sexual behavior, since they need to know how the genitals are combined in sex. There will necessarily be a cognitive dimension to this, presumably involving mental models of the other’s body and which parts do what. God will equip them with this knowledge, so as to prevent much blundering and potential injury. Adam and Eve were created already in possession of sexual know-how (which involves a good deal of know-that). Let us then suppose that they possess a specific schema or module or data structure dedicated to sex located somewhere in their brain, alongside similar centers for language, mathematics, ethics, and whatever else you deem innate. They possess an innate sexual faculty alongside other innate mental faculties.

            Now my question is this: how extensive is this faculty? How much sexual knowledge is innate? Is there knowledge of the various possible sexual positions or the various kinds of foreplay? I doubt it, but that is not my chief concern, which is this: do humans have innate knowledge of the connection between sex and reproduction? Do they know instinctively that sex produces babies? Certainly the sentence “Sex causes babies” is not analytic—there is no way to reason from propositions about sex to propositions about babies. It is entirely possible to be ignorant about the origin of babies while being well informed about the mechanics of sex. It is an a posteriori empirical fact that sex leads to babies. I suggest that people don’t innately know that sex and reproduction are connected; they learn this from experience, just as the empiricists say. And they may not learn it—they may remain ignorant of the connection. Consider animals again: I conjecture that no animal has ever grasped the sex-baby connection. Animals innately know how to have sex and how to take care of babies, but they don’t know—innately or by experience—that sex results in babies. To know that requires fairly sophisticated empirical enquiry concerning the time period of pregnancy as well as acceptance of something quite surprising. I suspect that even our most intelligent cousins in the animal world find the origin of children a mystery, if they think about it at all. Babies just appear from nowhere as far as they are concerned (how on earth did they get inside the mother?), even though they have knowledge of the activity that in fact produces them. (Indeed, I doubt that animals ever wantoffspring at all, though they clearly do want sex.  [2]) When did it dawn on our ancestors that sex produces babies? Did Neanderthals know about the sex-baby connection? Are there any “primitive tribes” today that don’t grasp the connection (thinking that babies are implanted by the gods and that sex is just good fun lacking any causal connection to reproduction)? This is why it is possible to convince children that the stork brings babies—because they don’t know otherwise (try convincing anyone that sex is performed with the ear and the little finger and see how far you get!). So some sexual knowledge is innate and some is acquired. Well and good: it is the same with knowledge of language–some is innate and some acquired. It is an empirical question where a given piece of sexual knowledge falls; there is no logical necessity here.

            But now there is a puzzle: why is this kind of sexual knowledge not innate? You would think that the genes, concerned above all with promoting reproduction, would program knowledge that sex leads to children, so that animals would do what is necessary to create children (new bodily vehicles for genes to nestle in). Their practical reasoning would take the form: I want babies; sex leads to babies; therefore I want sex. But this is not how it works (notoriously and tragically): animals and people want sex and as it happens sex leads to babies. Animals don’t have sex in order to produce babies; they have sex in order to have sex. But why didn’t the genes at least let us know that sex produces babies? They gave us other kinds of sexual knowledge, but they kept us in ignorance of this central fact about sex. We know innately that the penis and vagina are involved in sex, but we don’t know that children are—unless by experience.  Why don’t at least some animals know this? It’s almost as if the genes were keeping this piece of information from us! They don’t want us to know that sex leads to babies, but they very much want us to know how to have successful sex (by “us” I mean all animals).

Here an obvious thought comes to mind: the genes don’t want us to know because it might deter us from doing what they want us to do. If animals were well aware that having sex would lead to becoming parents, they might be less inclined to have sex. That is surely true in the human case, but from a gene-theoretic perspective it makes sense for all reproducing animals: animals are the slave of their genes and their genes keep them in ignorance of what might lessen the genes’ chances of survival. So maybe the ignorance is programmed ignorance—ignorance by design.  [3] The genes have made sex very attractive for animals (I’m thinking mainly of mammals) so that animals will do what the genes want them to, without letting them in on the dirty little secret that sex leads to parenting. We can imagine a species in which the psychology is constructed differently: the animals want to have children but the sex is not particularly appealing, rather like building a nest or burrowing a hole. The genes have designed these animals in such a way that their desires lead to offspring and hence gene propagation, but without making sex attractive and the sex-baby connection obscure. Theoretically this would work to get the genes into later generations, but evidently it has not gone that way on planet earth; the genes here deemed it wiser to opt for attractive sex (along with knowledge of its mechanics) combined with ignorance of its effects. Boring sex might in principle lead to babies in the presence of a desire to have babies, but the genes have in their wisdom opted for enjoyable sex and a lack of knowledge of the sex-baby connection. We must assume they had their reasons. The psychology of sex is therefore not one in which the sex-baby connection plays a role, however important it is biologically: animals don’t have sex as a means of satisfying their desire to have babies; they have sex despite the fact that it leads to babies. At any rate, they operate in ignorance of the fact that sex produces babies. Humans are probably alone in the animal world in grasping this connection, as we are alone in knowing many things of no biological relevance; from a biological point of view, this knowledge is either unnecessary or positively disadvantageous. Genes manipulate their vehicles by means of orgasm and by not letting them know that orgasm leads to parenting. Hence animals have innate sexual knowledge but not innate knowledge of the results of sex: they know the mechanics but not the consequences. There is really no reason for any animal species to grasp the fact that sex leads to babies—the genes can get along quite nicely without ever installing such knowledge, as they did for millions of years before modern humans came along. Thus our sexual knowledge falls into two parts: a necessary part (the mechanics) and an unnecessary part (the consequences)—the former being innate and the latter acquired.

            Socrates elicited knowledge of Pythagoras’ theorem from the slave boy by suitable questioning, thus demonstrating his innate knowledge of geometry. I doubt that questioning alone could elicit the slave boy’s innate knowledge of sex, but the injection of a suitable hormone might have done the job, as it naturally does in the case of adolescence.  [4] However, nothing like this could elicit the knowledge that sex produces babies—for that the slave boy would need either instruction or experience. So nativism about sexual knowledge is partly right and partly wrong: some of it is inborn and some of it is derived from experience. We are certainly not born a sexual blank slate, as Hume observed.

 

  [1] They may have thought it just too obvious to be worth mentioning compared to knowledge of language and mathematics; or perhaps they had a non-cognitive view of the sex instinct. Hume is bringing some solid common sense to the discussions of innateness with which he was familiar, notably Locke’s. Sexual passion is clearly not the result of being instructed to have it, or observing others in flagrante!

  [2] I mean that they don’t formulate the thought that it would be nice to have children and then set about accomplishing that goal—the thought of children probably never enters their heads as they copulate.

  [3] We might compare this with the ignorance of death among animals. They don’t know they will die, either because there is no biological point in knowing this or because the genes have expressly ensured such ignorance (a mutation that produced knowledge of death might make animals with it less reproductively successful than animals without it). Or again, how would it benefit the genes for animals to know that defecation is the result of eating? Animals probably have no idea about this causal connection—and why should they given that it isn’t useful knowledge (unlike knowledge of how to copulate, or fertilize eggs in some other way)?  

  [4] I assume this is the mechanism, simply stated: it is some change in the nervous system that brings the implicit innate knowledge to the fore upon sexual maturity, just as such changes produce sexual maturity itself.

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Selfish Genes and Selfish Beasts

                                   

 

 

Selfish Genes and Selfish Beasts

 

 

It is sometimes supposed that selfish gene theory implies that animals are always biologically selfish—that all animals carry “genes for selfishness”. That is a misunderstanding because the whole point of the theory is to allow for kin-related altruism: an animal will act against its own individual interests in order to further the interests of its offspring (or other relatives), since they carry its genes. The selfishness of the genes ensures the unselfishness of the beasts whose genes they are. Of course, some degree of selfishness is built into the theory because an animal must preserve itself if it is to propagate its genes—it needs to survive long enough to reproduce, hopefully several times. But the thrust of the theory is that animals always act to ensure the survival of their selfish genes, which can be either in them or in other animals. Selfish genes are not “genes for selfishness” but genes for altruism—granted that other animals share their genes.

            To drive this point home, consider the following thought experiment. Suppose an animal were to transfer all of its genes into its offspring, leaving none behind. The DNA is physically transferred from parent to offspring—not merely copied but itself sent elsewhere. After reproduction the parent is left with no DNA and so cannot reproduce again. Nothing like this happens on earth, of course; we are imagining a mere logical possibility. What would selfish gene theory predict about the behavior of the parent in relation to the child? Well, there is no need for the parent to conserve any resources for further acts of reproduction, so it will not neglect its offspring in order to save up for future offspring. Will it behave selfishly in relation to itself? No, because there are no selfish genes in it to program such behavior—from their point of view the animal is now quite useless (if it behaves selfishly). What the genes will program is total altruism in relation to the animal’s offspring, because that is the only place where its genes reside now. This hypothetical species will lay down its life for its offspring, no questions asked, because the genes program behavior that serves their interests: genes for anything else will not survive given the competitive realities of animal life. That is, selfishness in any form or measure will not exist in animals that lose their genes at reproduction to their offspring. So the theory predicts a complete lack of selfishness in beasts of the type described. The parent will always provide dinner for its offspring even if that means starvation for itself (unless its staying alive is in the interests of the offspring). That is the logic of the theory, not concern for the interests of the individual. Selfish genes make unselfish beasts.

            Of course, genes are not really selfish—that is just a dispensable metaphor used to sum up the underlying structure of natural selection. Only beasts can be selfish—beings with desires, needs, interests. But they aren’t selfish according to the selfish gene theory; and indeed you would be hard put to find an instance of an actual animal that behaves selfishly in relation to its offspring. If it did, its genes would be less likely to survive into future generations: selfishness within families would be strongly selected against. So there is nothing, according to the theory, in the biological world that is really selfish: not the selfish genes and not the beasts they construct and program. Selfishness only arises in relation to genetically remote animals: here the genes will program selfish behavior because they have no interest in preserving other genes. But this is not because animals care only for themselves; on the contrary, they care for any animals with which they share their genes. In the imaginary case this can go so far as to make animals act without any regard at all for their own wellbeing. If we came across a planet populated by animals of the kind described, we would marvel at the daily feats of extreme altruism performed on that planet—no matter how “selfish” the genes are there. Given the underlying principles of biological evolution, it is only a contingent fact that animals ever behave selfishly, i.e. in their own best interests. Altruism is the basic rule.  [1]

 

Colin McGinn      

  [1] I should emphasize that the altruism in question is confined to cases of genetic overlap; it does not extend to strangers. However, it would be possible to imagine whole populations that act altruistically in relation to each other if they were sufficiently genetically related. The logic of the theory is always that genes program behavior that favors their survival prospects—it doesn’t matter who contains those genes. The correlation between family membership and altruism is itself contingent: if strangers had more genetic overlap with an animal than its own family members, then the strangers would be the recipients of that animal’s altruism (remember we are here dealing only with imaginary cases).

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Seeing Sensations

                                               

 

 

Seeing Sensations

 

 

It has been generally accepted that you can’t know what a sensation is like without experiencing it yourself. No experience of pain, no understanding of pain; no seeing of red, no knowing what seeing of red is. Possessing the concept requires instantiating what it is a concept of. This is not true of states designated physical: you can know what measles is without having it, or how a bat’s wing is constructed without having one, or what C-fibers are without having any in your brain. So sensations differ from physical states in this epistemic respect: sensations require having them to know them, but physical states can be known whether you have them or not. But why is this? What is it that makes it the case that there is this epistemic asymmetry? Why is it that I can know what C-fibers are without having any C-fibers but I can’t know what pain is without being in pain (at some time)?

            The answer is crushingly obvious: I can see C-fibers in someone’s brain (perhaps using a microscope), so forming the concept; but I can’t see pain in someone’s brain (with any microscope), so forming the concept. Lacking sensory perception of pain, I have to fall back on acquaintance with instances of it in my own person (I can’t be aware of pain in another person in this way). I have to get the concepts from somewhere, and perception (mainly vision) allows me to get the concept of C-fibers by looking inside brains (or things similar to brains), while the concept of pain cannot be acquired in that way, but must be based on introspection.  [1] I can only introspect myself, but I can perceive many things other than myself. Thus it appears that we can assert the following counterfactual: If we could see sensations, we would know what they are without ourselves needing to have them. Suppose I couldn’t see C-fibers or anything like them, or sense them in any other way: then I wouldn’t know what C-fibers are—they would be like an exotic species I’ve never set eyes on (or heard about from someone who had). They would be an epistemic blank to me. That is our position with respect to sensations: we have never seen bat experiences, for example. Nor have we ever seen our own sensations, but here we have direct acquaintance with them in acts of introspection—as we don’t for bat sensations. But if we could see sensations–as they intrinsically are, as we see physical things–then we would not need to fall back on introspection. The trouble is that this counterfactual looks like it has an impossible antecedent: we necessarily can’t see sensations. This necessity claim is very strong, and even if true applies only to human beings. Is it true that no possible being could conceivably perceive sensations? It is not as if sensations lack causal powers or spatiotemporal coordinates—why should they not be in principle perceivable? And yet it is hard for us to conceive of what perceiving them might be like. That might just be a limitation on the human imagination, born of our particular cognitive faculties; maybe there are logically possible sensory systems that can respond to sensations as ours respond to streaks of lightning or cold air. But even if this is not possible the counterfactual still holds, only now with an impossible antecedent: if  (per impossibile) we could see sensations, then we would know what they are in that way. So this is still the explanation of why we can form concepts of physical states, but not of sensations, without having them: the reason for the asymmetry is that one is perceptible and the other is not.

            Consider a character, Billy, suspended in a tank under conditions of sensory deprivation: suppose Billy has many bodily sensations but no perception of outer objects; in particular, he feels pain but has never seen a brain or anything like one. He knows very well what pain is, since he feels it every day, but he has no idea what C-fibers are, having never seen any, or anything like them. He is an expert phenomenologist but a physical ignoramus. One day he is liberated from his tank and given outer senses: a brain is placed before him with C-fibers prominently displayed and he gazes at it for a good long time. Now he knows what C-fibers are, not having known this before, even though he knew very well what pain is: he has learned something new. Therefore C-fiber firing is not reducible to (identical with) pain: it is something over and above pain. We have thus proved that there is more to the world than sensations: it would not be plausible to maintain that C-fibers are nothing more than pain—or else Billy would have known about C-fibers just by knowing about pain.  [2] Whether or not this argument reaches its conclusion, it illustrates the dependence of certain concepts on perception: these concepts cannot be derived from introspection alone. The reason for Billy’s earlier ignorance about the nature of C-fibers is that he lacked perception of them; and the same can be said for our ignorance of (say) the sensations of bats—we lack perception of them. We only know the nature of our own sensations because we have another route to such knowledge, i.e. introspection. If we lacked introspection, we would have no concept of our own sensations either.

            What if we could know both things both ways? Suppose we could know sensations from our own case andknow them via perception: then we wouldn’t have any problems of conceptual limitation vis-à-vis other types of experience. We could know what it’s like to be a bat without having bat-type experiences. This would open up our knowledge of mind considerably; maybe it would enable us to solve the mind-body problem, by locating the psychological in the realm of perceptible things.  [3] It would certainly involve a conceptual transformation. Similarly, suppose that we could know physical states by perception and know them by introspection: then a lack of perception of them wouldn’t bar us from arriving at an accurate conception of what they are (unlike Billy). One might have a sensation as of one’s C-fibers firing (not the same as a sensation of pain); and this too might contribute to solving the mind-body problem, by locating the brain in the field of consciousness. As it is, the duality of perception and introspection underscores the duality of physical and mental states, but that duality might reflect our epistemic predicament more than any underlying ontology. A perceptual concept for sensations would render sensations more objectively comprehensible, while an introspective concept for brain states would render them more subjectively comprehensible (someone who lacks the C-fiber sensation can’t know what it’s like to have that sensation). As it is, however, we are stuck with a sharp duality of understanding: one thing we understand perceptually, the other introspectively. We are thus saddled with an unbridgeable subjective-objective divide. The point I have wanted to make here is diagnostic: the reason for the divide is that we can’t see sensations. That may be a contingent truth or it may be a necessary truth, but it is why our concepts for sensations are as they are; if we conceived them perceptually, we would have no trouble extending our psychological understanding beyond our own case. Bat minds would be transparent to us—as transparent as their bodies and brains.  I strongly suspect that the limitation here is contingent, though human beings would have to change dramatically (unrecognizably) in order to become mind perceivers: I think there must be beings in possible worlds that can see (etc.) sensations. You just have to hook up a sensitive surface to the intricacies of sensations in such a way that the corresponding percepts reflect fine distinctions in the sensations perceived. In any case, that is the ground of the difference: we can see brains but we can’t see minds. Just think how much simpler your intellectual life would be if you could see both. The “world-knot” might unravel before your eyes, literally.                

 

  [1] I won’t discuss the possibility of having these concepts innately—say, being born with the concept of a bat’s experience (but no bat experiences). This raises other puzzles.

  [2] Of course, I am alluding to Mary in her black and white room.

  [3] For one thing, seeing sensations would allow us to draw pictures of them, as we can draw pictures of C-fibers. We could then set the pictures side by side and compare them. As it is, we can draw no picture of pain to compare with our picture of C-fibers. What would that do to the mind-body problem?

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Remarks on Metaphysics

                                   

 

 

Remarks on Metaphysics

 

 

What kind of statement expresses the results of metaphysical inquiry? Wittgenstein famously begins the Tractatusthus: “The world is all that is the case” (1), “The world is the totality of facts, not of things” (1.1.), “The world is determined by the facts, and by their being all the facts” (1.11). The use of the phrase “the world” is conspicuous, intended to announce a thesis of metaphysical proportions, but what does it refer to? What does Wittgenstein mean by “the world”? Presumably he means the actual world, though he could certainly be taken to include other possible worlds—they too are constituted by facts (in that world). But what in the actual world is he referring to? Not ethics, because he denies that value is in the world, and not philosophy since its results can only be shown. Not the self either: “The philosophical self is not the human being, not the human body, or the human soul, with which psychology deals, but rather the metaphysical subject, the limit of the world—not a part of it” (5.641). The facts are what can be stated by means of true propositions, but Wittgenstein doesn’t think that everything (real?) can be stated. He means to exclude some things (if the word “thing” may be permitted). We could take him to be distinguishing the world from our attitudes to the world, including our ethical attitudes. Thus he might say that while the world is the totality of facts the mind is the totality of attitudes to facts. This would be to oppose mind and world (as in the title of a well-known book: Mind and World); the mind is not intended to fall within the denotation of “the world”. This is the narrow interpretation of  “the world” to be contrasted with the wide interpretation that includes the mind within the world.

            Two pieces of evidence may be cited for the narrow interpretation. The first is that in a later section Wittgenstein says the following: “Similarly the possibility of describing the world by means of Newtonian mechanics tells us nothing about the world: but what does tell us something about it is the precise way it is possible to describe it by these means. We are also told something about the world by the fact that it can be described more simply with one system of mechanics than with another” (6.342). Assuming that he refers to the same thing in both places by “the world”, he must be referring to what might be called “the physical world”, since he is not supposing that the mind can be described by mechanics. This certainly fits the general tenor of the book. Second, he construes facts as “combinations of objects”, and there is no reason to believe that he understands the mind that way: how is being in pain or feeling angry a combination of objects? There is no developed philosophy of mind in the Tractatus and it would be merely speculative to suggest that he understands the mind as a totality of facts constituted by combinations of objects. It is true that at one point he speaks of a speck in the visual field, musical notes, and “objects of the sense of touch” (2.0131), but these are not mental phenomena; they are the objects of mental phenomena (not sensing but thing sensed). It is also true that he may be committed by the picture theory to regarding thoughts as combinations of (symbolic) objects, since they have to be isomorphic to external facts; but there is no reason to suppose that he regards everything about the mind in this way. In any case, it seems clear that he intends the narrow interpretation in the passages cited, so that it includes neither ethics nor the mind nor the self nor philosophy: the world is contrasted with these other domains, not taken to include them. Perhaps we could paraphrase him by saying “the objective world”. That would make sense of his remark that “the world is independent of my will” (6.373), which would make no sense if the will were part of the world. He is quite happy to assert, “The sense of the world must lie outside the world. In the world everything is as it is, and everything happens as it does happen: in it no value exists—and if it did exist, it would have no value” (6.41). So he has no trouble excluding things from the world that don’t belong there, in the realm of reportable fact. He is speaking always of what may be mentally represented, not the representing itself. And his point is that the world in this narrow sense consists of facts not things, states of affairs not merely the objects that occur in them. The structure of the world is the structure of facts not objects (particulars, universals).

            But now, having settled on the denotation of “the world”, we have the question of the logical form of Wittgenstein’s pronouncements. We know what he is talking about, more or less, but what is he saying about it—and how is he saying it? On the face of it the sentence “The world is the totality of facts” has the form of an identity statement combining two definite descriptions: “The F = the G”. It is not an identity statement joining two proper names, as in “a = b”, though we might substitute a name for one or both of the descriptions, calling the world (say) “Winston”, so that we have “Winston is the totality of facts”. The question then would be how to analyze these descriptions: would Russell’s theory do the job? That gives the decidedly peculiar, “There is uniquely something xsuch that x is a world and x is identical to the totality of facts”, which might also yield its second description to Russell’s analysis. The truth is that the alleged description “the world” is by no means a term of ordinary language but a philosopher’s invention; semantically, it is hard to know what to make of it. In any case, the statement in question purports to identify one thing with another—the world with the totality of facts. Elsewhere we read: “The totality of existing states of affairs is the world” (2.04) and “The sum-total of reality is the world” (2.063)—again, apparently, identity propositions employing definite descriptions.  Metaphysics thus characteristically issues in statements of the form, “The world is (identical to) X”, where “X” is to be replaced by some description that purports to tell us the general nature of things.   

            What is notable is that Wittgenstein’s own statement falls short of what most metaphysicians aim to supply, since he is neutral as to the kind of fact that constitutes the world. All he tells us is that facts make up the world, not what these facts might be (similarly for his talk of “objects” and “states of affairs”). So far as his statement is concerned, these facts might be physical or mental or abstract or divine or unknowable. His theory is merely structural (logical), not substantive: it gives the form of the world not its substance (as he no doubt intends). Still, his statement provides a canonical formulation of a metaphysical thesis—a thesis about the general nature of reality. If we add to it the claim that all facts are physical facts, then we get metaphysical materialism. If we say that all facts are mental facts, we get metaphysical idealism. If we say the world consists of two types of substance, material and immaterial, we get metaphysical dualism. Schopenhauer wrote a book entitled The World as Will and Representation, clearly aiming to make a metaphysical statement (the book was known by Wittgenstein). Plato’s metaphysics can be expressed as, “The world is the instantiation of universals by particulars”. Hegel maintains, “The world is spirit”. David Lewis might say, “The world is the totality of all worlds”. Quine could opine, “The world is what science tells us it is”. The positivists might assert, “The world is what is verifiable”. All these views make use of the general notion of “the world”, and all could agree with Wittgenstein’s structural thesis. The metaphysician is telling us what the world is—its nature, its manner of being. Hesperus is Phosphorous, and water is H2O, and the world is spirit or matter or both or neither. We are offered a very general identity statement purporting to enlighten us about something called “the world”.

            It is reasonable to be suspicious about such metaphysical statements. This is not because they are unverifiable or that ordinary language has gone on holiday but because the conditions of reference may not be met. Does the term “the world” really refer to anything determinate as used by the would-be metaphysician? It isn’t much like a regular definite description with uniquely identifying descriptive content, or an embedded demonstrative; and “world” is hardly a regular sortal noun that carries criteria of identity and counting. What kind of entity is the world? What predicates does it satisfy? How is it to be picked from among other things? How can we speak about it as concrete particular with a specific nature? Is it an object? Can it be named? To what end? Sentences containing this pseudo-description, such as “The world is the totality of facts”, are semantically anomalous, though perfectly grammatical; certainly, we can’t just assume they are meaningful, possessed of determinate truth conditions and reference. They seem parasitic on other types of sentence in which the word “world” appears doing more humdrum things (“I’ve searched the world for her”), and thus derive apparent sense from their humble origins. But metaphysical sentences sonorously beginning, “The world is…” are up to something beyond the normal routines of the words they contain: for they purport to refer to the whole of reality—whatever that might mean. Hence the lack of clarity about Wittgenstein’s use of the phrase: does he include value in the world, or logical form, or the mind, or the fact that the world is the totality of facts? (Is this fact also a combination of objects, the world being one of them?) In fact Wittgenstein excludes various things from the reference of “the world”, so the phrase can’t just be a variant of “everything”: but then we need to be told exactly what he does intend to refer to. The phrase trips easily off the tongue, to be sure, but it may still fall flat—it may fail to single out a specific entity. Similarly for “the totality of facts” or “the sum-total of reality”: do we really know what these phrases mean? Presumably they are not intended to include the non-existent or merely fictional (but what about Meinong?), but there are true propositions about them too—isn’t it true that Sherlock Holmes is a detective or that unicorns don’t exist (hence all the problems about whether the world contains negative facts)? It is just not clear that we have hold of a well-defined concept here. What if a common sense type of chap were to protest, “I have no idea what you mean by ‘the world’, though I’m perfectly happy with phrases like ‘the cat in the corner’ or ‘the queen of England’—what is it exactly that you have in mind?” Grammatically, it looks as if we have an identity statement flanked by definite descriptions that pick out entities in good standing, but appearances can be misleading—in which case the standard products of metaphysical inquiry are lacking in sense. At the least we are owed some kind of account of how such sentences work. To put it bluntly, isn’t “the world” a meaningless abstraction, however sublime it may sound—just the kind of thing on which the later Wittgenstein would pour scorn? Isn’t it suspiciously like “the holy spirit” or “the ether” or “the force”—in fact, worse than these because they at least contain relatively well-defined words? Just because I can say, “You mean the world to me” doesn’t imply that I can talk meaningfully about what kind of the thing the world might be. Certainly we cannot begin a sentence with, “The world is…” and expect automatic semantic propriety; we need to say more about what precisely we have in mind.

            Because the sense of such sentences is unclear, we are apt to interpret them by whatever means comes to hand. And here I think semantics gives way to mental imagery: we form various pictures of what might be meant. These pictures may vary from individual to individual, but they are introduced in order to pin down the import of the proposition we are struggling to grasp. Metaphysics thrives on emergency imagery, particularly spatial imagery. Thus when I hear the sentence, “The world is the totality of facts”? I picture a heap of facts—a mountain of them, what with the world being so large. Wittgenstein tells us at one point, “The world divides into facts” (1.2), and we duly picture a divisible something—something with spatial parts. The world is an assemblage of smaller entities (“facts”) that combine into a larger whole, as rocks may form a mountain. Wittgenstein’s use of “totality” is interesting: not “set”, which might prove not concrete enough, but the more tangible idea of a spatial grouping of some sort—a pile, a stack, a pyramid maybe. The world is an agglomeration of lesser things, where these things are themselves conceived as spatial particulars (like atoms or molecules—atomic and molecular facts).  Such imagery courses through our mind as we study Wittgenstein’s enigmatic text and gives us an illusion of understanding—I know what a heap is! I conjecture that metaphysical discourse is unusually prone to this kind of imagery, as a kind of substitute or crutch. It would be interesting to do some empirical work on such imagery: how frequent is it, are there any universals, what happens when it is absent? Wittgenstein had an engineer’s mind and was fond of the notion of picturing, so it is possible that he had unusually strong imagery when composing the Tractatus: this will have encouraged him to think he was talking sense. And partly he was—but was it complete sense?  Language can carry us away, as he recognized in the Investigations, but so can the mental imagery it provokes: it can provide dubious abstractions with concrete credentials. Isn’t the Tractatus a very visual work, reliant on the reader’s complicity in visualization?

            The same is true of other metaphysical visions (!): they are apt to come with pictures attached. What do you think of when you think of dualism? I imagine two entities side by side, one extended and concrete, the other wispy and amorphous (compare the image of consciousness as steam emanating from a steam engine). When I think of materialism I imagine an accumulation of geological strata: at the base we have atoms in the void, with chemistry and biology and psychology laid on this base, like bricks laid on a foundation (and just think of the imagery associated with that word!). I don’t think of the facts of the world as separated in space, like islands, but as built one upon another—vertically not horizontally. Idealism puzzles my imagination because the mind is not so readily imagined spatially, but my imagery is something like a cloud of feathers or a ghostly gathering—a weightless assembly of formless nothings. Plato tried to give imaginative expression to his theory of forms by the parable of the cave, which is full of spatial imagery, but the theory taken neat suggests (to me) nothing so much as a colony of splendid birds of paradise. Frege likened his theory of sense and reference to the optical image in a telescope, in order to make the metaphysics palatable (intelligible), with space explicitly invoked; without this analogy we struggle with mental pictures of free-floating simulacra of things (those elusive “modes of presentation”). Much of the charm of metaphysics derives from these flights of imagination: we contrive to render elusive abstractions mentally manageable. Without this we might flounder in incomprehension, with only words to play with (“the world”, “totality”, “substance”, “immaterial”, “hierarchy”, “supervenience”, etc.). When Wittgenstein remarks, “Objects make up the substance of the world” (2.021) we reach for familiar ideas of substance and think we know what he means, as in “Flour makes up the substance of the cake”. Imagery abets metaphysics—maybe makes it humanly possible. What makes metaphysics meaningful to us is the imagery we bring to its pronouncements: but this is a suspicious gift, intoxicating though not necessarily illuminating. It may simply provide spurious protection from the verbal haze (or blaze). Or it may bias us in favor of views that interact better with our imagination—that provide us with more appealing pictures. Wittgenstein spoke of being held captive by a picture—well, in metaphysics there may be no alternative. In normal discourse we can rely on words to carry us along, but when discourse turns metaphysical words struggle to keep up, and then imagination takes up the slack, or tries to. We find ourselves dependent on pictures of many kinds: of heaps, webs, steam, railway tracks, shadows, lenses, ghosts, exotic animals, shimmering mirages, tools, chess games, light, magic tricks, building blocks, cement, blank slates, sentences—all the tricks of the philosophical trade. In this way we try to give sense to what we are inclined to say. When you read the words, “The world is…” your imagination is activated: you start to form pictures of what might be meant. You would be lost otherwise, or perhaps just not interested.  [1]

 

Colin McGinn          

           

  [1] I don’t want to give the impression that I am against all metaphysics (on the contrary), but I think certain ways of proceeding are fraught with linguistic peril, particularly pronouncements of the general form “The world is X”.

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Real Freedom

                                                           

 

 

 

Real Freedom

 

 

The free will debate is usually characterized as a dispute about whether or not freedom is compatible with determinism. Determinism is understood as the doctrine that all events are subject to the laws of nature, which admit of no exceptions. So an act like raising your arm falls under natural laws, which guarantee that in the same antecedent conditions the same action will be performed. The question then is whether freedom is consistent with the uniformity of nature: does determinism in the defined sense rule out free will or is it compatible with free will (and perhaps conducive to it)? The first point I want to make is that this is not quite the right way to put the issue: the question isn’t about whether freedom is compatible with determinism in the sense defined—that is just one form of the question. The general question, of which this is a special case, can be put in a variety of ways and it useful to have a sense of these ways: Is freedom compatible with determination, causation, psychological and physical laws, constraint, necessity, dependence, fixation, supervenience, grounding, predictability, forcing, compelling, being subject to, being based on, being conditioned by, being controlled by, being in the grip of, being the result of? That is, if an action A is in accordance with a desire D, can A be free if it bears any of these relations to D? Put most generally, is freedom of action compatible with dependence of some kind? The compatibilist says yes while the incompatibilist says no. The strong compatibilist (as I define him) holds that freedom requires such dependence, as well as being consistent with it; but the further spelling out of the nature of the dependence is not yet stated. So far it is an abstract placeholder.

This leaves room for a formulation not equivalent to the traditional formulation in terms of determinism, namely whether freedom is compatible with causation without laws. Suppose my desire D causes my action A but there is no law subsuming that causal relation, so that D can occur without A and A without D. Then determinism does not apply to A, though there can be a debate about whether the causation involved rules out freedom (or rules it in).  This is because there is still a type of dependence that (allegedly) calls into question the freedom of the action. The claim is that A had to happen given D, and this conflicts with freedom (assuming that freedom requires the ability to have done otherwise). Laws are not the essential consideration here; so denying laws will not save free action from some kinds of incompatibilism. The abstract issue is whether any kind of dependence rules out freedom, where this dependence might not even be causal dependence (as in occasionalism). The question is whether the action follows from the desire in some way (perhaps in conjunction with other psychological states), and laws need not be the only reason for this. Any kind of consequence will generate the problem.

            The strong compatibilist should not then assert that free will implies determinism, as if there can only be free will in a world governed by exceptionless laws; what she should assert is that it is essential to freedom that actions depend on desires in some way, leaving it open what the metaphysics of this dependence might be (suppose she rejects causation and laws on metaphysical grounds). There might be some weird kind of dependence mediated by a capricious God whereby actions are connected to desires; what matters is that the action follows from the desire in some way instead of being quite independent of the desire. We might then say that the dispute concerns the consequences for freedom of desire-dependence, however that is to be understood. The uniformity of nature is a side issue.

            The position I am inclined to accept is that freedom entails desire-dependence (strong compatibilism); and the question this position prompts is whether such dependence is compatible with accepting that agents have an ability to act otherwise than they actually act.  [1] Much ink has cascaded around this question, but I propose to be brief and dogmatic here: “I could have done otherwise” means “I had a choice”. It does not mean any fancy metaphysical business about the course of nature, such as that my actions could flout the laws of nature. It does not mean that two worlds could be exactly alike in their laws of nature and initial conditions and yet agents act differently in those worlds, or that two people could be exactly alike psychologically and yet choose differently. It means simply that I was not constrained by some outside (or inside) force that prevented me from doing what I wanted all things considered. When the gun is to your head you have no choice, as we say, but when you act as you see fit you have a choice—and that is all it means to say that you could have acted otherwise. The phrase carries no metaphysical baggage about the world having alternate futures despite what has obtained so far. And you have a choice even if your actions depend on your desires in some way—indeed that is what choice is. So choice can exist in a world in which actions depend on desires. Choice is compatible with desire-dependence. Intuitively, the ability to act otherwise is a matter of making different choices in the light of different desires, beliefs, perceptions, hunches, personality traits, and so on. It doesn’t require some remarkable capacity to transcend the empirical world and just insert an action into history without any intelligible antecedents.

            I see nothing wrong or misleading about expressing strong compatibilism as the thesis that freedom entails psychological determination (specifically by desires, but not only desires), where this need not imply determinism (though I also believe in determinism about our world). The type of determination in question need not fit any other type of determination in nature, and may indeed be quite mysterious; all that matters is that action not be decoupled from desire (and other psychological states) in the way libertarians sometimes envisage. We are not even required to call the dependence a type of causal relation, still less to assimilate it to other types of causal relation. All we need to say is that the agent acted as he did because of his desires (etc.)—and not because he was compelled so to act by someone with power over him (or anything similar). The essential point is that the strong compatibilist is not committed to holding that actions fall under laws, whether strict or merely statistical; all that is entailed by the concept of a free action is some sort of dependence or determination. This is what the concept of freedom requires, not that actions fall under laws or that they are subject to causality. Equally the incompatibilist does not have to establish the uniformity of nature and the universal reach of causality in order to mount his case against freedom—he just needs a general abstract notion of dependence. The issue between them has thus been improperly formulated and should be recast in the manner suggested here.

            I shall end with a point that I have not seen made: that there is no merit in having a capacity for freedom that involves desire-independence. Suppose it is claimed that two individuals could be exactly alike psychologically (and possible also physically) and yet act differently. That would mean that their different actions correspond to no difference of desire. But what would be the point of being able to act in ways that are independent of desire—what would that get you? Not greater desire satisfaction certainly, nor greater rationality (all the beliefs are the same too). It seems like a gratuitous talent to flout your own psychology, as if you are trying to prove some supernatural gift—“Look, I can act in ways that don’t satisfy my desires or reflect my outlook on the world!” Why would such a capacity exist in us? Do other animals have it, including our closest relatives? What about children? How could it evolve? It seems like a bizarre kind of spontaneity, serving no purpose except to establish a dubious metaphysics. If this is what freedom is, what is the point of being free? No, freedom is the ability to act on your own desires and reasoning, making sure you get what you want when you want it. That is something we can all get behind. You want your choices to be shaped by your desires (including your moral desires) not to be miraculously uncoupled from your desires. It isn’t that things would be better for us—we would be a better class of being–if we were able to act in ways that contravene our carefully considered desires and judgments. That just seems like a pointless eccentricity, nothing to celebrate.

 

Colin McGinn    

  [1] See my papers “Freedom as Determination”, “I’m Free”, and “Freedom Within Necessity”. I defend this kind of compatibilism in these papers and say more what it means to say that someone could have done otherwise.

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