Is God an Atheist?

 

 

Is God an Atheist?

 

God (if he exists) is a rational being. He believes in his own existence only if it is rational so to believe. So does God believe in his own existence? It might be thought that he has quick route to his existence—the divine version of the Cogito. God knows that he thinks, therefore he knows that he exists: he knows his own existence in just the way we know ours, by means of self-awareness.  But this would be a non sequitur: for it doesn’t follow that he knows he is God (or even a god). He is God (by hypothesis), and he knows by the Cogito that he exists; but he doesn’t thereby know that the thing that exists is God. For all he knows given just the Cogito, he might be a mortal man. Suppose I am in fact an immortal soul: I know by the Cogito that I exist, but not that I am an immortal soul. I might even see fit to deny the existence of all immortal souls while being one myself. Knowing my existence doesn’t entail knowing my essence. Ditto for God. We can’t infer from the de re proposition “God knows of himself that he exists” the de dicto proposition “God knows that God exists”. God might be quite certain that he exists, in virtue of the Cogito, but full of uncertainty about his divine status, since that doesn’t follow from mere existence. In order to know that he exists and is God he needs to know what attributes he has, then he can deduce his divine existence. This may be thought easy enough: can’t he infer Godhood from omniscience? There are two problems with this route, concerning knowledge of the attribute and the validity of the inference. How can God know he is omniscient? The skeptic will point out that an impression of omniscience doesn’t entail actual omniscience: people can think they know everything and be wrong. How does God know that his beliefs are all true and that they cover every aspect of reality? How can he know there is nothing he doesn’t know about? There might be aspects of reality not covered by his (admittedly extensive) knowledge, and what makes him so sure of his infallibility? Isn’t omniscience a very difficult attribute to know you have? The skeptic will question God’s justification for making such a bold claim. It may be true that he is omniscient, but how can he be certain that he is? It’s like a human claiming to know all about a certain period of history—how can such a claim ever be substantiated? Second, does it follow from omniscience that the being is question is God? Not obviously, since that being might lack other attributes necessary to being God, such as omnipotence and perfect virtue. So it would be necessary for God to know he has these attributes too: but how can he be certain he has them? Can he even be certain that they are coherent? There are well-known problems involving limits to divine power (can God do the impossible?); and on what basis is God so sure that his virtue is flawless? Of course, if he knows he is God, he can deduce this consequence; but that is the question at issue. Whence God’s certainty in his perfect virtue? Wouldn’t it be more reasonable to admit the possibility of imperfection while noting that his track record so far is pretty impressive? How can God be so sure that he has attributes of such enormous scope? Is it possible that he is in error on these points? Isn’t it an epistemic possibility that he might act imperfectly someday, or encounter a limit to his power, or slip up in his knowledge? What evidence does he have that such unlimited attributes belong to him? It might be said that he doesn’t need evidence—he is God!—but can simply know these things directly. He just intuits that he is omniscient, omnipotent, and morally perfect. But even if that were possible, it would have to be admitted that he could have beliefs about them by a less direct method, just as we have beliefs about our attributes by inference from something else. But God’s attributes, being so extensive, are not knowable by indirect methods, so he can’t know them in the standard way; he has to intuit them directly if he is to know them at all. But how does he do that, and why is he so constrained? His putative knowledge of his God-constituting attributes is epistemologically mysterious; the skeptic will insist that God simply can’t have such extensive knowledge. If so, he can’t know that he is God.[1]

            So far it looks as if God is doomed to agnosticism about his divine status: he can’t know he is God, but he can’t rule out the hypothesis either. He can’t accept theism (though by hypothesis it is true) but he can’t reject it either. He is like us in this respect: we don’t have good reason to accept that God exists, but that falls short of actively rejecting the God hypothesis. But this is to neglect arguments against God’s existence, particularly the argument from evil. When God is pondering the question of his existence as God it will occur to him that there is a lot of evil in the world that he allows to happen. But then he wonders how this is compatible with his alleged benevolence: how could he let such evil exist given his enormous power and goodness? Since he is trying to determine whether he is indeed God, he comes to the conclusion that he can’t be; he is just too morally indifferent, or perhaps blind. This reasoning is eminently convincing. Maybe there is a flaw in the argument somewhere, but he is damned if he can see it. We are allowing that he is God, so his conclusion is false; but his reasoning is cogent, so he would be justified in forming the belief that there is no God. Or we could take this as a reductio ad absurdum: the supposition of God contains a contradiction, since it implies that God must know that he doesn’t exist if he exists. The problem of evil shows that God (were he to exist) must truly believe that he doesn’t exist. Certainly God would rationally doubt his own existence if he existed, based on the problem of evil. The same is true of other reasons for rejecting God’s existence such as problems about his origin, immaterial nature, profligacy with respect to the extent of the physical universe, etc. God would reflect on these problems and come to doubt his own existence as God. God is supremely rational after all and not susceptible to special pleading and religious bias. He would appreciate the force of the case against him (qua God).

            In the case of humans we find resort to the concept of faith when it comes to God’s existence. Could a similar move be made to explain God’s belief in himself—does he believe he is God on faith? He has tried the ontological argument and the cosmological argument and the argument from design, finding them all wanting, so he resorts to the idea that his existence is a matter of faith. That seems like a logically available move, but it is theologically disastrous. If we can believe things on faith, then surely God has that ability too; but no theologian will be happy with the suggestion that God has no better reason to believe in his existence than we do! Does God have crises of faith about himself? Is he that epistemologically limited about his own identity? Does he pray to himself to keep his faith strong? It has always been assumed, tacitly no doubt, that God has perfect knowledge of his Godhood: but once we examine the matter more closely and remove the veil of piety, we see that God also has problems of belief—he too is at sea about his existence. The reason is plain: it is very difficult to know that one is God, even if one is. The belief is alarmingly speculative. Is it possible to know one is a ghost if one is, or an angel, or a demon? You would have to know you are not a natural thing but a supernatural thing, but such alleged knowledge is very vulnerable to skeptical doubt, because it is so strong. Couldn’t you be under the impression that you are a ghost or an angel or a demon and just be a deluded human? That seems like an epistemic possibility. You might really be one of these supernatural beings, but how can you tell you are?[2] You might just be a mere mortal dreaming you are! You think you are a ghost but how can you be certain you are? Ghosts don’t have their ghostly identity written on their sleeve. That’s not how knowledge works. It isn’t the same with human superheroes: you can know you are one of those by ordinary empirical observation—you possess obvious superhuman powers. But how does ordinary observation establish supernatural status? God could observe his exceptional powers and conclude he is some kind of superhero, but that is a far cry from establishing that he is God. Not only is it difficult to establish that you have the necessary attributes; it is also difficult to move from those attributes to an ascription of Godhood. How does God know he is infinite (Spinoza’s defining attribute of God), and how does he move from this knowledge to the knowledge that he is God (aren’t other things also infinite)? Self-knowledge of divinity is remarkably difficult to obtain. A rational God would find it impossible to achieve. Consider the nature of Jesus Christ’s self-knowledge on the traditional Christian understanding of it: does he know he is God? How could he know this? Does he infer it from his miracles? Did his virgin birth convince him? Did he hear a voice from God in his childhood? Does he just feel it palpitating in his heart? All these possible reasons are hopelessly unconvincing to any rational person in his position, so why is Jesus so sure he is the Son of God? The answer is that he can’t be sure, and probably wasn’t. You would have to be mad to believe such a thing based on that type of evidence. Even if the feeling in your heart were very strong, that would be a thin basis on which to form such an extravagant belief. Jesus was rational, so he had no such certainty—even if he was the Son of God. Ditto John the Baptist and the putative prophets. Religious knowledge of these types is just really hard to obtain given the nature of the facts allegedly known. Not even God has it! So yes, God, being rational, is an atheist—he does not accept the proposition that he exists (as God).[3]

 

[1] It might be said that God’s knowledge of his omniscience and Godhood follows trivially from his omniscience: if he knows everything, then he knows this fact and that he is God. But that has all the advantages of theft over honest toil, stipulation over explanation. God surely has reasons for believing that he is both omniscient and God, based on known facts about himself, and we should be able to specify what those reasons are. Things like an impression of general omniscience or a stellar track record in the knowledge department would constitute such reasons. The trouble is that such reasons are too weak to add up to genuine knowledge, let alone certainty (I leave open the question of the relation between knowledge and certainty), as the skeptic would be quick to point out. It is a feeble response to this to appeal to God’s stipulated omniscience to guarantee that he has such knowledge. There must be a way in which God has knowledge of his divine attributes and identity as God. He must be epistemologically intelligible.  

[2] Suppose reincarnation is true: this is generally assumed to be compatible with accepting that you don’t knowyou are reincarnated, or what form your previous incarnations took. It is exceptionally hard to know your reincarnation history. You are in fact the type of being whose quasi-divine nature is not given to you. How did the Greek gods know they were gods, not just very flashy people? They must have had their doubts. How did the God of the Old Testament know he was the only God? It was at least an epistemic possibility for him that polytheism was true. If you were God wouldn’t you be open to the possibility that there might be other gods? How can you be certain of your uniqueness?   

[3] It is hard to see how we can be to blame for not believing in God if even God does not believe in God. Presumably God does not reproach himself for his atheism or agnosticism, it being a reflection of the virtue of rationality, so he can hardly blame us for our conscientious atheism or agnosticism. This puts the whole history of Christian theology in a less than flattering light (people being executed and so on for having an attribute that God himself has). Would the Inquisition declare God a heretic for not being confident that he is God? I myself would admire God for his epistemic humility.

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Seeming

 

 

Seeming

 

Seeming is a pervasive feature of conscious life. We (and other animals) are constant subjects of seeming: things are forever seeming this way or that to us. It now seems to me that there is a red cup in front of me, that Sebastian is in a good mood today, and that seeming is a worthwhile topic for philosophical investigation. Consciousness could almost be defined by way of seeming: it is a center, a hub, of seeming. What it is like to be x is how things seem to x, and where there is seeming there must be consciousness. Sentience is seeming. Oddly, our vocabulary for it is quite limited: in addition to “seems” we have “appear” and how things “strike” us, but not much else. Synonyms are thin on the ground, despite the ubiquity of the phenomenon (is this a sign of poor comprehension?). What exactly is seeming? It might be thought to be a species of belief, perhaps the tentative kind: if it seems to you that p, then you (tentatively) believe that p. While there is certainly a correlation between seeming and believing, it would be wrong to define the former by the latter, since it is possible to disbelieve what seems to you to be the case (or to be neutral about it). If you have reason to believe you have been hallucinating recently, you may distrust your senses and reject the appearances they offer to your faculty of judgment. Seeming may be something like an invitation to belief, but you can decline the invitation. Nor is belief sufficient for seeming: I believe the Sun is 93 million miles away, but it doesn’t seem to me that way. Seeming looks like a sui generis state of mind, not to be assimilated to belief. It is also shared by different sense modalities and indeed by other modes of knowing: both sight and hearing (etc.) provide us with occasions of seeming, so the nature of seeming cannot be defined in terms of specific types of experience. What we can say is that all knowledge depends on episodes of seeming: we can’t know things without things seeming a certain way to us. Seeming plays a vital epistemological role. What we believe depends ultimately (sometimes directly) on how things seem to us. So it would be good to know what seeming is, how it is to be analyzed. When it seems to me that p what kind of mental state am I in?

            The answer might seem straightforward (note how frequently we use the word): I am in a subjective state that has representational content (intentionality, reference). In short, seeming is experience. But that can’t be right as stated, because mental images fit that specification: they are subjective states with representational content, but they are not states in which the world seems to be a certain way. Mental images are not hallucinations and do not present themselves as such. I am not tempted to believe what they represent; they don’t function as evidence for me. Here we might reach for the concept of the sense datum: a seeming is a sense datum, a constituent of perceptual consciousness. This suggestion encounters a problem with non-sensory seeming, unless we enlarge the concept of a sense; but there is a subtler problem, namely that the sense datum, as traditionally conceived, is too weak to add up to real seeming. The intuitive idea is that a sense datum is an intrinsic state of consciousness that transparently presents itself to the knowing subject—not very different from a pain or tickle (“My visual field is yellowish”). But why should that add up to a way the world seems? The sense datum is conceived as a floating element of consciousness—a quale in modern terminology—but where is the idea of how things seem in that conception?  Couldn’t such an entity be present in consciousness and not strike the subject as pointing to how things external to him actually are? The sense datum is too neutral, too isolated within itself, too uncommitted. It is too much like an image or idea or concept: it doesn’t carry within it the element of world-directed commitment. It just hangs there. You can see what I am driving at by consulting the dictionary: the OED gives an admirably concise and abstract definition of “seem”—“give the impression of being”. We could choose to build this into the notion of a sense datum, but the traditional notion is not so understood. There are two aspects to the definition: being and impression. Seeming is the appearance of being—existence, reality, externality. It isn’t a neutral quality of consciousness: it points outwards; it has (purported) objectivity. This is more than mere intentionality, since that is compatible with the fictional or subjective status of the intentional object. But in the case of seeming we have apparent reality. When visual experience makes it seem to you that there is red cup in front of you it makes that state of affairs seem real—objectively real, really there. The concept of seeming is connected to the concepts of fact and truth; indeed, it is up to its neck in the idea of an objective, shared, external reality. All seeming is existential seeming (unless explicitly about fictional entities). The senses make the external world real to consciousness (whether or not it really is). If it seems to you that p, then it seems to you that it is true that p (factual, part of being). Seeming is ontologically committed. It isn’t ontologically neutral like traditional sense data or physical stimuli impinging on the sense organs. You need not believe what it purports to reveal, but it certainly has strong opinions (as it were). Seeming is a realist: it affirms the transcendent. The second element is the concept of impression: in seeming you have the impression of reality; you are affected that way. The seeming makes a certain impact on you. Not necessarily a belief, but some sort of mental effect (the word “impress” can mean “make a mark or design on (an object) using a stamp or seal”: OED). You have, as we say, the distinct impression that things out there are thus and so—really thus and so. You may be cut to the quick by this impression, or elated by it, or sublimely indifferent to it. How things seem concerns the self: it is the self that is impressed by the (apparent) encounter with being. But this fact—the fact of having the impression that p—fits none of the standard mental categories, being neither belief nor sensation. It is sui generis and rather puzzling, despite its familiarity. Seeming is neither assent nor feeling, but somehow something in between. It concerns reality and is clear in its commitments, but it isn’t a type of belief—though it functions as an invitation to belief. We might say it belongs to its own mental faculty, alongside the faculties of belief formation, imagination, emotion, etc. It provides input to other faculties but isn’t a special case of them.[1] It demonstrates the variety of the mental (and the dangers of that overarching concept). The seeming faculty is in the business of providing impressions of being (though it can fail in its mission), which we must evaluate in order to arrive at beliefs. These impressions are useful and sometimes impressive (waterfalls, mountains, whales) and no doubt serve a biological purpose. But they are rather mysterious, being neither fish nor fowl. It is hard even to talk about them: we are left with the bare claim that the mind is capable of entertaining impressions of reality that don’t ascend to the level of belief (but do go beyond mere subjective items).

            We can now define “seems”, notwithstanding its puzzling status. It seems to an organism that p if and only if the organism has an experience in which it has the impression that p. More briefly, seeming is having an experience-based impression of being. Here we leave “impression” as undefined (the dictionary is no help); it must be taken as primitive. All we can say is that it is not a case of belief (or disposition to belief). Such states, however, are the basis of all knowledge. Hamlet’s famous line “Seems, madam! nay it is; I know not ‘seems’” encapsulates a good deal about seeming: its relation to being and its puzzling status. The traditional philosopher would put “is” after “I know not” (skepticism etc.), assuming that how things seem can be known; but Hamlet seems (!) to be saying that he doesn’t know anything about seeming. What is this strange seeming, this curious hybrid, this committed agnostic? I understand “To be or not to be”, but what are we to make of “To seem or not to seem”? I know not that, Horatio. Poor Hamlet, he doesn’t even know how things seem, let alone what really happened to his father or the nature of the afterlife! Our ordinary language also seems to be in some doubt on the matter: there are verb and adjective forms of “seem” (“seems” and “seeming”), but there is no noun form, as if English is reluctant to engage in the ontology of seeming. I have spoken in noun form of “a seeming” and “seemings”, as if there are such things, but that is not regular English. English, like Hamlet, knows not “seemings” or “a seeming”. Yet seeming seems real (I have the strong impression that seeming has being)—there are seemings of seemings. But they are puzzling conceptually; perhaps this is why they are seldom discussed, or assimilated to something else. We need a philosophy of seeming (not of physical sensory inputs or amorphous “sense data”); in particular, we need a better understanding of the notion of “impression”. Perhaps seemings are supervenient on other mental phenomena such as experiences of one kind or another, but we should be wary of any attempt to reduce them to such a basis. Do experiences cause seemings? Is it because of experiences that things seem a certain way, even though seemings strictly transcend experiences as such? Or are the things we call “experiences” really compounds of seeming and some more primitive sensory material? And how do experiences make an impression on the subject, whatever that effect is exactly? Hume spoke of impressions and ideas, recognizing that the senses do more than just parade ideas before our minds, but he said nothing to explain what an impression is, i.e. what it is an impression of and what it is an impression to. We are constantly having impressions of this or that, but what this operation amounts to remains obscure. Metaphorically, it is something like an imprinting (a type of denting), but that tells us little of any theoretical use. All knowledge therefore rests on something we don’t understand.[2]

 

[1] Someone might try saying that seemings are the beliefs of the perceptual modules, potentially in competition with the beliefs of the central system, as in cases of visual illusion (see Jerry Fodor’s The Modularity of Mind). But that is an anthropomorphic picture of the perceptual systems: nothing in you believes that the lines of the Muller-Lyer illusion are unequal (assuming you know the illusion). The seemings of the senses are completely non-doxastic. It is merely as if your visual system believes what it delivers. Belief is really the icing on the cake not fundamental epistemological reality.

[2] If we say all knowledge rests on observation, we tacitly bring in the idea of seeming: an observation is a mental act in which something seems to be the case. That is, observations are precisely conscious states that embed an impression of being: the observer is affected by reality in a certain way and he seems to himself to be so affected. We can’t avoid admitting seeming into the epistemological picture in favor of something (seemingly) less obscure. Seeming is inescapable.

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Philosophical Knowledge

 

 

Philosophical Knowledge

 

I wish to examine the distinctive nature of philosophical knowledge. I don’t want to place much emphasis on the concept of knowledge; if that is too vaunted a term, we can as well speak of opinion or hypothesis or reasoning—whatever it is we do mentally when we do the thing called philosophy. But I will speak of knowledge for convenience (and because I don’t myself think the term is too strong). So: what kind of knowledge is philosophical knowledge? Two positions have been staked out: either such knowledge is a posteriori or it is a priori. It is either knowledge “by experience” or knowledge “independently of experience”. The former position is held by those who believe that philosophy is “continuous with science”: it is empiricism with respect to philosophical knowledge, i.e. the five senses are the ultimate basis of this knowledge. The latter position is held by those who think that philosophy proceeds by conceptual analysis or is akin to mathematics (hence synthetic a priori): no sense experience is essentially involved in acquiring philosophical knowledge. But this ignores a third possibility: philosophy relies on some sort of experience but not traditional sense experience.[1] That is, there are philosophical experiences and these play a role in producing philosophical knowledge. This position allows for a kind of extended empiricism with regard to philosophical knowledge: such knowledge is based on experience, but the experience is not of the kind associated with the five human senses. It is sui generis. But what kind of experiences are these? We may cite feelings of conceptual confusion, impressions of mystery, intellectual cramps, magical imagery, theoretical frustration, moments of exhilaration, sensations of sudden insight. Philosophy has its phenomenology, its what-it’s-likeness: there is a way that consciousness configures itself when philosophy is going on in it. So these experiences are available to play a role in generating knowledge, and hence qualify philosophy as an empirical discipline in the extended sense—like logic, mathematics, and semantics (also ethics). Thus we can accept a rationalist conception of the epistemology of philosophy while maintaining that philosophy falls under a general empiricism—rationalist empiricism. We have philosophical knowledge in virtue of having philosophical experiences—episodes of consciousness in which philosophical thought is embedded. Philosophy turns out to be a posteriori, though not in the sense usually intended, but simply because experience is epistemologically ubiquitous. Yet it is also a priori in the sense that it is prior to (independent of) body-based sense experience, i.e. the five senses. We don’t need to use our five senses in order to arrive at philosophical knowledge (it is a priori relative to those), but we do use—and must use—our experiences in a broader sense (and so is a posteriori in that respect). For we use experiential consciousness when we are employing our mind about philosophical questions. Our phenomenology shapes our cognition.

            But this is somewhat thin gruel unless we can say more about the distinctive characteristics of philosophical cognition. Granted we have philosophical experiences, but how are they related to the essence of philosophy as an intellectual discipline? What is the nature of philosophy such that it produces such philosophical experiences? What exactly constitutes a philosophical experience? To answer these questions we need to say more about the general character of philosophy; then we can say that philosophical phenomenology reflects this character. We need to link phenomenology with cognitive architecture—consciousness with cognitive science. So let us try to develop a cognitive science of philosophy and see what kind of experience falls out of that. This will enable us to be more explicit about the type of experience that drives the epistemology of philosophy. We will then be able to unify the structure of philosophical cognition, the epistemological status of philosophy, and the phenomenology of philosophy. So what is that structure? What makes philosophy unlike other subjects? What specific methods does it adopt? How is it related to preexisting properties of the human mind? We may begin by noting that other academic disciplines are rooted in aspects of the mind that pre-date and anticipate their academic form; they don’t spring from nowhere, psychologically speaking. They have their origins in folk psychology. Thus physics has its roots in what is called folk physics—our primitive understanding of the physical world. Obviously we need this understanding in order to survive in a world of material bodies subject to the laws of physics; and there is every reason to believe that it has a substantial innate component. It would be possible to spell out the basic operating features of the innately based folk-physics mental module (compare the innate language capacity). The general point is that academic physics has its counterpart in a preexisting psychological capacity with a specific structure and application to the real world. No doubt this capacity arose for good evolutionary reasons (organisms that are bad at folk physics don’t stick around for long). Geography clearly grows from a basic competence in mapping the surroundings of the organism: where things are, how to get from A to B, what kinds of environmental features to look out for. We used to have local mental maps (like other animals), now we have maps of the entire planet. History is made possible by memory, by an ability to keep track of the past—vital in an organism that needs to learn from the past. Primitive people told stories about what happened in days of yore (or yesterday) and academic history exploits this basic ability to construct its sweeping narratives. Chemistry is a little more obscure as to origins, but a primitive understanding of chemical reactions could prove useful in practical activities—how metals rust, water dissolves, acid burns. Perhaps cooking encouraged chemical knowledge by drawing attention to the way heat changes the form of substances. Psychology obviously develops from folk psychology, useful in a social species, and also innately based. Astronomy has its origins in our perception of the night sky and our observations of the sun and moon, which are also useful things to know about. Economics grows from primeval bartering. Political science arises from the need for government in a social species. Linguistics builds upon basic linguistic competence, a central feature of the human animal. Biology is anticipated by our ancient awareness of species, reproduction, predation, etc. Even anthropology, apparently about people from remote locations, can be seen as having seeds in our need to understand strangers, even if only from the neighboring tribe. That is, each academic discipline has roots in preexisting mental competences that serve broadly biological purposes, and it reflects those competences. A cognitive science of these basic mental capacities clearly carries over to the more sophisticated edifices that make up a modern university. The historian, say, is using the same basic capacities used by his ancestors in reconstructing the past—memory, traces left by the past, and narrative talent. Generally speaking, academic disciplines have precursors in human psychological nature, which typically serve biological functions. They thus have a certain kind of evolutionary history, or pre-history.

            But what about philosophy—where is its primeval precursor? From what biological adaptation did it intelligibly spring? Here we seem to draw a blank: philosophy looks distinctly de trop, biologically pointless, lacking in identifiable function. Did it just spring from nowhere? Does it lack a natural history comparable to those just indicated? Is it humanly unnatural? I think the answer is that it stems from what psychologists call meta-cognition—the ability to think about thinking. In philosophy we reflect on thoughts, concepts, theories, arguments, inferences, reasoning: we engage in a second-order cognitive activity. And we do so in an evaluative mode: we assess validity, plausibility, coherence, cogency, etc. That is the basic structure of philosophical cognition—evaluative meta-cognition. Philosophical competence is largely meta-cognitive competence. But why do we have this kind of competence? The answer, I suggest, is that criticism came to be a useful trait in a social species—the ability to evaluate other people’s beliefs and assertions. Our ancestors used meta-cognition in their critical behavior the better to aid the group, or to establish primacy within it. A gene for criticism evolved by the usual mechanisms. The criticism might concern hunting strategies or agricultural methods or personal conduct; in any case it led to an ability to evaluate chains of reasoning and accept or reject the claims of others. Being a good critic conferred reproductive advantage—the same old evolutionary story. Language will have played a part in this because it enabled critics to express their criticisms: disputes could be aired, conclusions reached, plans adopted. All this required meta-cognition and logical competence. Self-criticism came along with it—not as a form of humility but rather as a way to prepare oneself for effective rebuttal in case of challenge. Dialectical skill had social value. So philosophy as an academic discipline has its early roots (partially at least) in the critical practices of meta-cognitive creatures. Socrates is a prime example: energetically arguing in the marketplace with overconfident conspecifics. Socrates is a born critic, a logical evaluator, a meta-cognitive savant. The dialogue form thus perfectly reflects the origins of the philosophical mind. In the course of evolving and refining this trait certain problems were discovered and grouped together—forming the subject we now call “philosophy”. So philosophy does have a quotidian source or precursor just like the other disciplines, though of a special sort. The sophists and the skeptics are natural descendants of the aboriginal arguers and persuaders of primitive human groups. Immanuel Kant no doubt had an ancestor particularly adept at tribal-gathering argy-bargy. The more meta-cognitively able you are the better (Wittgenstein was nothing if not meta-cognitive). Philosophy thus arises in a social context employing a certain cognitive toolbox: that is its cognitive science. A solitary life does not naturally lead to it; nor will a life of cognitive complacency (ants have more aptitude for it than eagles, and it will not arise in the socially uncompetitive). Perhaps our primate cousins have an inkling of philosophy, being somewhat meta-cognitive themselves. It is hard to see how far one can go in it without a language, because that is the primary means of social persuasion—though language is not by itself sufficient to kick-start philosophy. It is language used critically that contains the magic ingredient. Philosophy begins with verbal confrontation.[2]

            We can now return to the phenomenology of philosophy. Given that evaluative meta-cognition has been identified as the psychological deep structure of philosophy, it will follow that the experience of doing philosophy will embody this structure. Philosophy has a meta-cognitive evaluative phenomenology. It seems to us that certain propositions are consistent with other propositions; that some propositions follow from others; that a particular concept has such and such necessary and sufficient conditions (or otherwise); that a particular theory has a lot to be said for it; and so on. These appearances play a role in shaping our philosophical beliefs and producing philosophical knowledge. So this is the specific type of the philosophical experience—evaluative meta-cognitive experience. The philosophical experience thus resembles the logical experience, not surprisingly. Feelings of necessity and contingency are central to both philosophical and logical knowledge. Accordingly, philosophical knowledge is a species of empirical knowledge in the extended sense (but not in the traditional sense). Rationalist empiricism applies to it. Its cognitive architecture, phenomenology, and epistemology fit tightly together: cognitive architecture generates experiential phenomenology and experiential phenomenology generates knowledge. It is the same with philosophy as with other subjects.[3]

 

[1] See my “Rationalist Empiricism” (2021).

[2] If science begins with wonder at the natural world, then philosophy (in the modern sense) begins with wonder at other people’s stupidity—at their ratiocinative failings. The heart of philosophy lies in the pronouncement: “That doesn’t follow”. 

[3] The degree to which various cognitive competences are modular is up for debate. It is generally supposed that physical competence, psychological competence, and moral competence are separate modules. If so, we can predict a variety of phenomenological styles to be associated with them. In the case of philosophy, its meta-cognitive structure will align it with competences also aptly seen as meta-cognitive, such as regular introspective knowledge. The feeling of pain has a specific experiential quality, but so does knowledge of feeling pain; and this knowledge will resemble philosophical knowledge in so far as both are second order. If there were a distinctive meta-cognitive quale, it would be shared by all meta-cognitive activities. I suspect that philosophical competence is, or rests upon, a separable mental module, which is why it is not necessarily correlated with other kinds of intellectual competence. Are there any philosophical idiot savants

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Rationalist Empiricism

 

 

Rationalist Empiricism

 

Classical empiricism maintains two main theses: all concepts are acquired by experience and are not innate; and all knowledge is based on experience. Classical rationalism by contrast maintains that some or all concepts are innate and not derived from experience; and some knowledge at least is not based on experience. These are independent propositions: it would be possible to hold that all concepts are innate and that all knowledge is based on experience. That is, one could be a rationalist about the acquisition of concepts (including the content of experience) and an empiricist about the basis of factual or propositional knowledge. Everything about the way we perceive and understand the world could be innate, but still we only know truths about it by means of perception.[1] This position—rationalist empiricism—avoids the traditional empiricist claim that our means of representing the world is derived by abstraction from sense experience, but it accepts that all justification is experiential. How we see things comes from within the mind, but knowledge of facts requires commerce with the world outside the mind (except when it is knowledge of the mind). The constituents of thought (knowledge, perception) are innately given, but all factual knowledge results from some sort of experience of reality: nativism about concepts, empiricism about knowledge. Alternatively put, ideas are innate but beliefs are acquired by experience. This is in many ways an attractive position given the difficulties of the empiricist theory of concept acquisition, i.e. abstractionism, and given the obscurity of rationalist accounts of knowledge.[2] It allows us to have a uniform theory of knowledge that possesses a fair degree of intelligibility while avoiding the problems inherent in the idea that concepts can be derived from objects by some sort of imprinting or copying procedure. The rationalists were right about one thing; the empiricists were right about another. Yet the position is seldom if ever occupied: instead we get a rigid divide between pure experience theories and pure reason theories. The rationalist will accept that some knowledge is based on experience, but the knowledge that isn’t so based is conceived as radically different from empirical knowledge. Wouldn’t it be better if we could develop a more unified picture of human knowledge without such a sharp dichotomy? So we should look with favor on the project of articulating a rationalist empiricism that has a more workable theory of concept acquisition and a more seamless picture of knowledge, thus combining the best elements of both traditions.

            But that project faces a formidable challenge: how can knowledge that is traditionally deemed a priori be assimilated to empirical knowledge? How can mathematics, say, be based on experience? The senses alone cannot deliver mathematical knowledge; for that we need a faculty traditionally labeled “Reason”. One approach to this problem for a general empiricism is to claim that human knowledge forms a seamless whole that collectively faces the test of experience. We adopt a holism of human knowledge and then claim that mathematics is justified by its place in the totality of knowledge as it confronts experience (see Quine). The advantage of this approach is that we can apply an intelligible framework for understanding all knowledge (the senses operating in intelligible ways) and at the same time deliver a uniform picture of all knowledge (we don’t have to postulate two completely different ways of knowing). Such a picture could be combined with nativism about the building blocks of knowledge to produce a streamlined and appealing theory of the whole of human knowledge: so we get the best of both worlds, rationalist and empiricist. But the holistic doctrine is hard to accept, and the account of the actual epistemology of mathematical knowledge quite implausible. Couldn’t we find a way of thinking that achieves the same end but without the implausible claims? Can’t we broaden the notion of experience so as to include mathematical (and other) knowledge—why must it be restricted to sense experience, and indeed to bodily sense experience? The old empiricists held that the five human senses are the sole origin of knowledge, with vision preeminent, but why insist on that limitation? Certainly we would want to include other possible senses, and why restrict ourselves to these? For one thing, we need to make room for introspective knowledge—knowledge by reflection, as the empiricists put it. Here it is natural to invoke the idea of an inner sense: I can sense my own mental states and come to know about them. I thus come to know about them by experience (in one sense of “experience”)—not by logical deduction or revelation or sacred texts. I can receive data about my own mind: information, evidence. It seems to me that I am in pain and so I form the belief that I am in pain. The OED gives three definitions of “experience”: “practical contact with and observation of facts or events”, “knowledge or skill gained over time”, and “an event or activity that leaves a lasting impression”. Each of these can fit the case of introspective knowledge: I can be practically aware of my mental state, can gain knowledge of it over time, and it can leave a lasting impression on me. We don’t need to limit the notion of experience to the particular types of experience characteristic of the five bodily senses. Nor is the notion of a sense so limited: that is just empiricist dogma. So we already extend the concept of experience beyond the five senses, along with allied concepts. What about the concept of mystical experience, or experiences of cosmic despair, or experiences of the oneness of nature?

            How should we view the mental faculties involved in producing so-called a priori knowledge? There are four cases to consider: knowledge of meaning, logical knowledge, mathematical knowledge, and ethical knowledge. I propose assigning these to separate mental faculties: they are not homogeneous and deserve to have their own specific module. Then our question is whether they can be seen as lying on a continuum with other types of knowledge; in particular, can they be said to involve types of experience? I think they can: we have semantic experiences, logical experiences, mathematical experiences, and ethical experiences. That is, our consciousness can be affected in specific ways according to the relevant subject matter: there is something it is like to think about these things. When we acquire these types of knowledge our consciousness plays a role—we have a kind of basic awareness of the properties and facts in question. I am aware of what my words mean; I feel the compulsion of a logical deduction; I notice mathematical relations; I have a sudden sensation that such and such would be very wrong. Of course, these states of consciousness are elusive and hard to put into words, but it is undeniable that consciousness reflects the subject matter we are thinking about. We learn about these things over time by attention and practice, so that the knowledge comes more easily to us; and we do it without divine assistance or by recourse to supposed authorities. The individual using his or her natural faculties can come to have knowledge of the kinds in question—a key tenet of the empiricist philosophy. So why not say we have such knowledge “by experience” (notmeaning by the kind of experience proper to the five senses of the body)? We just need a more relaxed and inclusive notion of experience—one that is not at all alien to common sense. Then we can formulate a more liberal form of empiricism that includes types of knowledge usually labeled a priori. Knowledge arises from the individual’s natural faculties operating without divine assistance or deference to supposed authorities: so we know these things by “personal experience” not by external means (custom, the church, our parents, God’s messages inscribed on the soul). Our own consciousness is the source of all our knowledge—whether employed about the physical world or about more “abstract” matters. We have experience of many things and thereby come to know about them, not all of it connected to the five senses.[3]

            There is a kind of epistemological spectrum at work here. Suppose we think of touch as the most basic and tangible way of knowing things: things actually come into contact with our body in a mechanical manner (mechanism applies to knowledge by means of touch). Then we might rank taste and smell as the next senses on the continuum, since they too involve actual contact with the sense organs. Hearing comes next with sound waves in the air impinging on the tympanic membrane etc. Sight is a further step away from the paradigm of touch, being a distance sense (the idea of photons hitting the retina is far removed from the idea of observable bodily contact and is not part of the ordinary concept of vision). The next step brings us to introspection, in which the idea of physical contact starts to look misguided (at this point some people start to speak of the a priori). Not so far away from this we reach knowledge of meaning, which strikes us as a form of introspective knowledge, since meaning is a psychological fact of some sort. Closely following this we get to logical knowledge, which flows from knowledge of meaning, logical consequence being a type of meaning relation. Then we have a bit of a leap to mathematical knowledge: now we seem to be speaking of a realm of objects bearing properties about which we have information, but which make no contact with our body at all. Finally, we reach ethical knowledge: here we lose any analogy to the case of touch, and mechanism has been thoroughly defenestrated. There isn’t a sharp dichotomy, more a series of similarities and differences. In all cases we have some type of experience proper to the subject matter in question—some condition of individual consciousness—and knowledge springs from this basis. So empiricism applies to all cases—relaxed non-bodily empiricism. It is true that mechanism runs out of steam half way up the ladder, thus leaving us bereft of a theoretical structure that seems to render things intelligible to us; but mechanism is a doctrine long ago abandoned in physics and shouldn’t shape the way we do epistemology. Is it a tacit mechanism that lies behind our tendency to favor old-fashioned empiricism? All knowledge, we think, must spring from mechanically intelligible causes, and the bodily senses, particularly touch, conform to this model (or seem to). But once we abandon that ideal we can allow that all knowledge belongs on a continuum: it is all based on experience in the broad sense.[4] Thus empiricism turns out to be true of all knowledge no matter how “abstract” or “a priori”. In fact no knowledge is a priori in the sense of being independent of all experience—though it can be independent of the experiences of the five senses (but so what?). Knowledge is a priori only relative to a type of experience; in this sense knowledge obtained by vision, say, is a priori relative the experiences delivered by the other four senses. We have a mathematical sense that produces mathematical experiences, and that sense is a priori relative to the other senses: it doesn’t depend on them. That is, we have conscious data in all cases that lead to knowledge—sense-data if you like (if we accept that we have a mathematical sense and a moral sense). The main dogma of old-style empiricism is the doctrine that only the five bodily senses deserve to be called senses. But a sense is just a faculty for receiving and processing information—for generating knowledge. So it is possible to be as rationalist as you like about mathematical and moral knowledge and still be an empiricist about them. Someone who thinks that we literally see numbers (but not with our physical eyes) is a firm rationalist but at the same time a staunch empiricist (he believes that mathematical knowledge springs from the unaided individual consciousness). He thinks we need more than just mathematical concepts in order to have propositional mathematical knowledge—we need to do the kind of seeing he has in mind—so he thinks that experience is necessary to knowing mathematical facts. His view is that mathematical concepts are innate but we also need mathematical experience in order to obtain actual mathematical knowledge—so he is a rationalist empiricist about mathematics. And he does not appear to contradict himself. Similarly an ethicist can hold that moral perception is necessary for moral knowledge, not just a stock of innate moral concepts; so she is in effect an ethical rationalist empiricist (we don’t get our moral beliefs from religion or tradition but from our own inner consciousness). She might indeed stress the importance of moral experience, so affirming her commitment to moral empiricism (it’s not all a matter of logical deduction in the style of Kant). Innate endowment gives you the building blocks; experience enables you to form these into actual knowledge. So it might reasonably be maintained: the result is a mixture of rationalist and empiricist tenets, suitably modified and extended. A nice result is that there isn’t the kind of sharp dichotomy envisaged by traditional epistemology: all knowledge is experience-based, but the experiences are of different types. Plato’s slave boy in the Meno learned Pythagoras’s theorem by experience (guided by Socrates), i.e. by applying his mind about geometrical concepts; he didn’t know this theorem before encountering Socrates that day—though he did already possess the necessary concepts. He is not essentially different from someone coming to know that it’s raining: such a person knows this fact by experience but all the concepts he employs are innately based (as we are supposing). We thus obtain a pleasingly uniform account of knowledge that builds in the best insights of rationalism and empiricism. The empiricist can be right that no knowledge of facts is strictly speaking innate, since some kind of eliciting episode of conscious experience is needed; yet the rationalist can also be right that all knowledge depends on a stock of innate concepts not put there by experience. Babies don’t actually have explicit mathematical and ethical knowledge, i.e. true justified beliefs in these things, but they do have the conceptual resources to have such knowledge once suitable experience comes their way. Both sides win: knowledge is always a mixture of the innate (rationalism) and the experiential (empiricism). All propositional knowledge is dependent on experience, but no concept is so based.[5]

 

[1] We don’t have to say that every complex concept is innate qua complex concept; we can hold that all primitiveconcepts are innate. We can thus allow for post-natal concept combination. It will still be true that all concepts are composed wholly of innate concepts—none is acquired by any process of abstraction from sense experience.

[2] I discuss the difficulties with empiricist accounts of concept possession and the mysteries of rationalism in Inborn Knowledge: The Mystery Within (2015).

[3] We might also list a modal sense and an aesthetic sense. It seems to us that some things are necessary and some contingent, and it seems that some objects are beautiful and some are not. We accordingly form beliefs about the modal and the aesthetic based on these appearances. Neither of these senses can be assimilated to the five bodily senses. Note that we don’t just de novo form beliefs and possess knowledge in these cases (as in others); we also experience presentations—ways things seem, appear, strike us. This is part of what makes it natural to talk of a sense: there is a way things seem and a belief based on this. Thus the concept of a sense has a wider application than traditional empiricists have supposed (it need not be causal, for example). Consider also the proprioceptive sense and the temporal sense: neither of these is quite like the Big Five and yet they are senses in good standing.    

[4] In the case of knowledge of language, i.e. grammar and syntax, we might hold that the framework of categories and rules of combination is innate but that we only form propositional knowledge of language by being exposed to linguistic data in the course of our upbringing. We are not, on this view, born knowing that such and such a string is grammatical, but we are born with a mastery of the concepts and principles that enter into such judgments. (The case of knowledge of grammar may not be typical of other types of knowledge traditionally considered in epistemology, and requires a separate discussion.) 

[5] If we ask who was basically in the right in the traditional debates about rationalism and empiricism, I would say the rationalists. The type of empiricism I defend here is quite far removed from anything the old empiricists had in mind: they were dedicated to the five bodily senses and insistent on the sensory origins of concepts. The “empiricism” I defend is really thoroughly rationalist in spirit (though not in letter!). But it does provide a way to unify all propositional knowledge conceptually: all such knowledge is true experientially justified belief.

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Analytic and A Priori

 

 

Analytic and A Priori

 

Take any ordinary analytic statement and prefix it with “It’s analytic that”: is the result analytic? Is “It’s analytic that bachelors are unmarried males” analytic? The answer would appear to be yes, since the meanings of the embedded sentence and the word “analytic” entail its truth. You don’t need to look outside the meanings of these words in order to know that the sentence is true. It’s not like saying that the sentence “Bachelors are unmarried males” was once uttered by W.V. Quine, which is a synthetic statement requiring knowledge of extra-semantic facts. What about synthetic sentences: if you prefix one of these with “It’s synthetic that”, do you get an analytic truth or a synthetic truth? You get something true, obviously, since the embedded sentence is synthetic (say, “Quine taught at Harvard”), but is the complex sentence itself synthetic? The answer would appear to be no, since the meaning of the embedded sentence requires that the world has to make a contribution to determining truth-value. It follows from what the sentence means that it is synthetic, so given the meaning of “synthetic” the complex sentence will be true in virtue of meaning, i.e. it will be analytic. More strictly, the sentence “It’s a synthetic truth that Quine taught at Harvard” will be analytically true, given that Quine actually taught at Harvard: that is, if Quine taught at Harvard, then it’s analytic that it’s synthetic that Quine taught at Harvard. It follows from the meaning of the embedded sentence that its conditional truth is synthetic, so this is an analytic proposition: the proposition is analytically synthetic. You can tell just from its meaning that its truth depends on the world, so it is analytically true that it is a synthetic proposition. We know just by philosophical reflection that synthetic propositions are synthetic, because this status depends on their meaning alone: the meaning of the corresponding sentence entails that it is synthetic, so it is analytic that this is a synthetic sentence. It is analytic that this is the type of sentence that is synthetic. So both analytic sentences and synthetic sentences are analytically of the type they are.  (Compare the fact that we can necessitate both necessity and possibility: “Necessarily p” implies “Necessarily necessarily p” but also “Possibly p” implies “Necessarily possibly p”).

            Now we get an interesting result: for every true proposition we can derive an analytically true proposition. That is clearly correct for analytically true propositions, since it is analytic that they are analytic; but it is also true for synthetically true propositions, since the statement that they are synthetically true is true analytically. Thus no one could claim that there are only synthetically true propositions: for every synthetic truth can provide the basis for a corresponding analytic truth, i.e. one saying that it is synthetic. It follows from the meaning of every synthetic truth that it is synthetic, i.e. requires the contribution of the world, so this fact is an analytic truth. It couldn’t be that every true sentence is synthetically true, since synthetic truths themselves generate analytic truths. If we announce that every sentence faces the tribunal of experience, we forget that this is not true for the sentence that says that it faces the tribunal of experience, because this is a fact about its meaning. Also, there are more analytic truths than synthetic truths, since every synthetic truth has a corresponding analytic truth, but not every analytic truth has such a corresponding synthetic truth. Someone might see in this asymmetry a reason for saying that analytic truth is more basic or primary, because all language requires the existence of analytic truths, even if they are limited to affirmations of syntheticity.

            Turning to the a priori, we get a parallel result (not surprisingly). If a proposition (or piece of knowledge) is a priori, is it a priori that it’s a priori? Evidently yes, since we know without empirical investigation that it’s a priori. Mathematical knowledge is a priori, but so is the knowledge that it is a priori. We don’t need to do an empirical investigation of mathematical knowledge; we know it by philosophical reflection. That is, if it is a priori, then our philosophical knowledge that it is so is also a priori. We don’t find this out from empirical psychologists. But now what about a posteriori knowledge: is it a priori or a posteriori that a given piece of knowledge is a posteriori? Clearly it is a priori: philosophers know that empirical propositions are empirical by a priori means. We know that “Quine taught at Harvard” is an empirical sentence just by understanding it, so we know this fact a priori. We can just see that it requires a posteriori investigation by knowing what the proposition is, so this knowledge is a priori. So every a posteriori proposition has a corresponding a priori proposition—the proposition that it is a posteriori. It would therefore we wrong to say that all propositions are (or could be) a posteriori: some have to be a priori. Someone might see in this a reason for thinking that a priori knowledge is more basic or primary than a posterioriknowledge. For every piece of a posteriori knowledge, there is a piece of a priori knowledge to the effect it is a posteriori. We can say the same about certainty and doubt: if it is certain that p, it is certain that it is certain that p(e.g. the Cogito); but also if it is doubtful that p, it is certain that it is doubtful that p. If the external world is doubtful, this fact is a certainty—it isn’t itself doubtful. I know for sure that the existence of the external world can be doubted. So again, certainty exists wherever there is doubt, even if it just concerns what is doubtful. Certainty thus has a claim to being more basic and primary than doubtfulness. We can therefore conclude that certainty, the a priori, and the analytic are everywhere, lurking in the background of the doubtful, the a posteriori, and the synthetic. We just need to go up a step and they loom into view.

            Once we have these points clear we can ask complicated questions about how the relevant concepts interact. Is it a priori that it’s analytic that it’s synthetic that p? Is it analytic that it’s necessary that p? Is it certain that it’s a posteriori and synthetic that p? I won’t go into these questions, but I think the answer is yes to each of them for suitable choices of p. People have tended to investigate the relevant concepts in isolation, but they interact in complex ways that tax comprehension. It is interesting to see how the semantic, epistemic, and modal line up, with the concepts that are often deemed secondary or dubious assuming a position of centrality. The certain, the analytic, the a priori, and the necessary all emerge as pervasive and tightly connected, as in hackneyed examples like “Bachelors are unmarried males”, which exhibits all four properties. This is actually a remarkable convergence once we take the measure of each concept (they are not at all identical or mutually entailing): it doesn’t seem necessary or analytic or certain or a priori that anything would exhibit all four properties together, and they can clearly come apart in certain cases. Yet here they all are crowded together into a single sentence! Finding them stuck together is the surprising thing, not finding them apart.[1]

 

[1] Kripke showed in Naming and Necessity that they come apart in certain cases; post-Kripke we may wonder how they ever manage to join together. This is certainly a non-trivial fact: why should a single proposition be analytic and a priori and necessary and certain? Yet here they nestle together like members of the same family. We can imagine philosophers for whom this is a momentous discovery—not the discovery that they can be instantiated separately (that is a truism).

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Art and Morality

 

 

Art and Morality

 

Morality itself has nothing to do with art, but art is the primary means of expressing morality.[1] This conundrum doesn’t apply to other subjects: physics has nothing to do with art, but it doesn’t recruit art as its primary mode of expression. We don’t learn physics by studying or enjoying art, but we do learn morality by means of art: why? What is it about morality and art that brings them together? I mean “art” in a broad sense: literature, poetry, plays, film, pictorial art, music, anecdotal tales, and stories of personal drama. We are exposed to these forms from an early age and they saturate our moral sensibilities. It would be hard to preserve our moral attitudes if all these art forms were subtracted from our lives. Morality lends itself to artistic expression and communication even though it is not strictly an art form—any more than physics is (or any other science, or system of laws, or practical endeavor). Plato thought morality should steer clear of art, knowing full well that in fact art and morality are deeply enmeshed in our lives. Why should morality appropriate art as its chief weapon—why does this come so naturally to us? What is it about morality that invites artistic expression? If we came across people who made no such association, what would we think—are they missing a vital connection? Morality certainly can be expressed non-artistically, as in a system of laws or a work of philosophical ethics, so why does it rely so heavily on art? Just think of Western art and Christian ethics: where would the latter be without the former? And consider the contribution of the novel to morality as we have it today. The arts are clearly a powerful vehicle of moral education (despite what some aesthetes have maintained). Even the humble pop song is full of moral material.

            You might say that morality is all about emotion (unlike physics) and so is art. But (a) psychology is also about emotion but doesn’t seek out artistic expression, and (b) morality is not all about emotion (unless you are a diehard emotivist)—just consider Kantian ethics. Nor is all art dedicated to emotion. Is it because art is concerned with the specific and particular? Again, that is neither necessary nor sufficient (and is not really true): some moral knowledge concerns abstract universal principles, and being about the particular is not sufficient for being part of morality. Nor is art always about the particular. Is it that art is concerned with beauty and beauty leads the soul to the good (to put it Platonically)? This may sound on the right track, but the beauty of art is not confined to its moral dimension and not all of morality is aptly compared to the beautiful (what about boring everyday duties?). What about the idea that art and morality have the property of narrativity in common? But not all art with moral content is narrative in form (pictures, music), and morality is not really a narrative structure intrinsically, though it can be expressed in narrative form. Might it be that ethics is basically fiction and so is art? If you think there is no such thing as moral truth and that morality is a cultural construct, you might be tempted by this idea, but it is stretching the concept of fiction beyond reasonable limits and clearly depends on a contestable claim about morality. And in what sense are pictorial art and music “fictional”? Can we get anywhere with the concept of unity? Is it that art works have a unity that corresponds to the unity of the good? The trouble with this is that it is too vague: lots of things have unity without locking onto art as a main vehicle of expression (one might say embodiment). What kindof unity? Is the unity of the moral (“the Form of the Good”) anything like the unity of a poem or novel or painting? Does art make morality more concrete and imaginatively accessible? That sounds intuitively correct, but many things are abstract and hard to grasp without inviting art to express them—physics, mathematics, and philosophy. We are not finding any property of morality that particularly joins it with art—something that only art can do, and do well. How exactly does art aid our apprehension of the right and good? What does it add (or possibly take away: see below)? What makes it an appropriate means for representing the realm of good and evil?

            That last word provides a clue: when we think of morality we think about right and wrong—evil as well as good. This will involve us in contemplating the horrors of the world: suffering, cruelty, death, disease, misery, despair, etc. None of this is easy to bear; indeed, it might be said that we never contemplate these things in their complete reality—or if we do it is through half-closed eyes. The moral world is an unbearable world. Yet we live in it—we have to respond to it. Children dying of starvation in foreign lands, the unjustly imprisoned, the murder of innocents, animal cruelty—the stuff of the nightly news. We are aware of all this, dimly and reluctantly, and of our own complicity in it. But we shield ourselves from this awareness: we keep it at a safe distance. In addition, morality is a demanding mistress: she is constantly rebuking us for our weakness, cowardice, selfishness, and so on. We are highly ambivalent when it comes to morality; we don’t unequivocally love the good (it doesn’t love us as much as we would like). Morality is a problem for us not a soothing presence (as is God). So we avert our eyes from moral reality while being forced to confront it. This does not sit well with us: the human psyche (soul) is not cut out for morality—not up to its demands. The world is too horrible and we are too weak and selfish. We thus live in a state of cognitive dissonance when it comes to morality; there is a distinct lack of psychological harmony in our dealings with right and wrong, good and evil. Morally, we are a mess. We need protection from morality, some sort of filter or reducer. Plato said the good is like the sun in not being easy to stare at: we need to view it under suitable viewing conditions when its glare is not so overpowering. At full strength our faculties can’t cope with it, so we wait for clouds or sundown to mask its natural brilliance. By analogy, we need a way of apprehending morality that removes or masks its more disagreeable aspects—its resistance to unfiltered contemplation. What better way to do this than by clothing it in aesthetic robes? Then we can gaze at it in a form acceptable to us. We can gaze at picturesof the sun, and we can gaze at pictures of the good (i.e. the whole moral sphere). Art provides that picture: a way of seeing the world in all its horror without having to endure the full impact of that horror. Paintings can be beautiful (even of a crucifixion), novels amusing and gripping, music enlivening, poetry exquisite, movies entertaining—even when the subject matter is excruciating. The art form renders the unbearable bearable. It also deflects us from the grim task of doing what is right (where is the fun in that?). Art makes morality humanly acceptable: it embeds the moral in the aesthetic. It makes being a moral being a little bit easier. It is the equivalent of wearing dark glasses when you stare at an eclipse. True, it is a sign of weakness, of cowardice even, but at least you get to see the eclipse. Analogously, without the filter of art we would avert our gaze from morality altogether—because it is just too much to bear. As they say, it doesn’t bear thinking about. Art shields us from the reality of good and evil (the former too demanding, the latter too upsetting), but at least it allows us to open our minds to it. If you give a creature a moral sense, you had better give it a means of coping with that sense. Other animals have neither art nor morality, but we have both—and there is a reason we have both, viz. one allows us to live with the other. God gave us art so that we could face up to morality, at least fitfully. At the most primitive level storytelling is our way of dealing with the rigors of moral knowledge: at least we can creatively report the horror we just witnessed. Suppose a primitive man, recently endowed with a moral sense, witnesses the violent death of a beautiful animal: he feels the animal’s pain and fear and is suitably affected. He comes back to camp and makes a drawing of it or tells the story around the campfire: he has transposed the moral into the artistic, rendering it easier to bear. Looked at this way, art evolved from the need to soothe the moral sense—to render its deliverances bearable.[2] It’s either that or studiously avoid the horrors of the world, or develop a moral callousness that has its own difficulties. Art is the solution to the awful burden of moral consciousness, which has a dual nature: the reproachful character of morality, and the reality of suffering and death. It is the human mind trying to manage its awareness of right and wrong, good and evil. Sure, it’s a kind of cheat, but it beats the alternative, viz. a refusal to engage with morality at all. Art is better than callous nihilism. We don’t have this kind of problem with physics and other subjects: here we can gaze at the subject matter with nary a twinge of guilt or distress—we have no need of art to cope with knowledge of the physical world. But knowledge of the moral world is a very different proposition: in this case the knowledge carries inbuilt sources of disquiet and distress, requiring some coping mechanism. If we didn’t have art to fall back on, we would be faced with a choice between amoral indifference and moral despair—rejecting morality or being crushed by it. We could refuse to look at the sun or we could blind ourselves by looking too intently, or we can put on the dark glasses. Art gives us the kind of moral knowledge we can bear: not too intimate, not too searing, not too real. Could any human soul survive full awareness of the suffering that happens every day on planet earth? Instead we read Shakespeare or Tolstoy, or listen to music, or take in a movie. Art gives us a transformed awareness of morality, one that caters to our moral limitations. Sometimes it brings us uncomfortably close to moral reality as it really exists (as in King Lear) and artistic form only just renders it bearable; but mostly the reality is kept at a safe distance. In the case of bad sentimental art the blinders are fully on and nothing of moral reality seeps through, only an untruthful depiction of human (and animal) life. The best art lets moral truth shine through but with enough artifice to avoid total repugnance (War and Peace is a good example, or Madame Bovary): tremendous suffering but shaped by the devices of the artist.[3] Thus we can read a beautiful book about horrifying events; and the same can be said of other artistic forms (Guernica is the obvious example in the case of painting). Perhaps poetry is the purest form of this, because it deals with disturbing subjects in the most condensed and explicit artistic form—though music might claim to arouse the moral emotions from the most morally attenuated material (morality from sheer sound). If we include comedy as an art form, then too we can say that the joke presents morality in a form that makes us laugh: we laugh at what would otherwise make us cry.[4] All of this is immensely problematic and teetering on the brink of moral degradation, but if I am right this is the price we pay for engaging with morality at all. We really aren’t equipped to deal with morality (beyond its most elementary forms[5]), but we find in art a possible approach to it that we can tolerate. Compare a fine picture of the crucifixion with a detailed point-by-point description of crucifying a man (or seeing it actually done), or reading Flaubert’s account of Emma Bovary’s death with actually witnessing it. Morality has nothing intrinsically to do with art, but we can see how it might need art to become humanly feasible. The conundrum becomes intelligible. Moral consciousness is more easily borne when suffused with aesthetic consciousness.[6]

 

[1] This essay arose from reading Iris Murdoch’s Metaphysics as a Guide to Morals (1992). She talks a lot about the relation between morality and art. My own interest in the topic goes back to Ethics, Evil and Fiction (1997).

[2] This is not to say that art might not serve other functions too. Something as complex and multi-faceted as art might have evolved for several reasons. Perhaps it was repurposed at some point in order to help with the fallout from our moral sense, having first served some more mundane function (say, indicating the whereabouts of food or predators).

[3] Homer’s Iliad is an interesting case: the violence and bloodshed is so extreme and relentless that the real world of war seems to enter the artwork in naked form. Perhaps we have progressed morally beyond Homer’s world to such a degree that we need more art to cover the awful reality. The same might said of the Old Testament, which can only shock modern sensibilities. In the case of a work like Lolita a tremendous amount of artistic effort has to go into clothing and distancing the moral vileness on display: here art is called on to perform miracles.     

[4] Tragedy is the most difficult form to pull off because it comes perilously close to reality (no one would want to read a factual account of a murder like Othello’s murder of Desdemona). Perhaps this is why tragedies are often placed in an exotic context so that we don’t read them as reports of actual happenings: we can keep them safely at the level of fantasy. Perhaps too this explains the double use of “tragedy” to refer to a fictional work and a real-life event: the distinction becomes blurred.  

[5] Much of moral philosophy deals with such elementary cases (repaying debts, keeping promises, etc.). There is nothing wrong with dwelling on this mundane material, but we miss a lot in moral psychology unless we widen our vision to include more serious matters. Then we see how morality challenges and grieves us, and how we struggle with it. Being a moral being hurts (or ought to).

[6] The question of why humans evolved such a fraught faculty remains unanswered: why do we have a form of consciousness (cognition, emotion) that requires this kind of massaging? It seems like a kind of cosmic sadism (wonderful though it undoubtedly is). Animals are blissfully free of it. We have been colonized by the aesthetic-ethical complex.

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Metaphilosophy

Philosophical Philosophy by

Colin MCGinn

AbstrACt: I here set out my general conception of philosophy: it consists of a set of timeless problems that are not of the same nature as standard scientific problems, though we can rightly describe philosophy as a sci- ence. These problems are peculiarly difficult, which makes progress hard to achieve. Philosophy aims at clarification and intelligibility, and it is preoccupied with paradoxes and puzzles. We can describe philosophy as a logical science. It is unlikely ever to end.

Keywords: History, Science, Mystery, Clarification, Paradox

AbstrACt: In questo articolo espongo la mia concezione generale della filosofia, secondo cui la filosofia consiste di un insieme di problemi senza tempo che non sono della stessa natura dei problemi scientifici standard, sebbene sia possibile descrivere correttamente la filosofia come una scien- za. Tali problemi sono particolarmente difficili, il che rende difficile conse- guire dei progressi. La filosofia mira alla chiarificazione e all’intelligibilità, e si occupa di paradossi e rompicapi. È possibile descrivere la filosofia come una scienza logica. È improbabile che abbia fine.

Keywords: storia, scienza, mistero, chiarificazione, paradosso

Philosophy takes place within a social, political, and intellectual context. There is a surrounding culture or environment. Religion, morality, the arts, the sciences, war, peace, a general optimism or pes- simism – all these factors impinge on the way philosophy is practiced during a particular historical period. The factors can vary over time, causing philosophy to vary over time (also place). A given period may be preoccupied with rival political systems (ancient Greece in Plato’s time), or with the advent of natural science (seventeenth cen-

Syzetesis VIII (2021) 89-98 / ArtiColi ISSN 1974-5044 – http://www.syzetesis.it DOI: 10.53242/syzetesis/5

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tury Europe), or with the arts and architecture (Renaissance Italy), or with war and religion (early twentieth century Europe), or with populism and social media (today almost everywhere). Philosophy is apt to be shaped by these preoccupations, leading us to suppose that philosophy is historically constituted: it is the intellectual treatment of prevailing cultural formations. Philosophy is the philosophy of this or that (non-philosophical) area of human endeavor, an essentially second-order activity, so that its content is fixed by the prevailing cultural concerns. It is, in a broad sense, political, using that word widely to connote societal movements and developments: it is politi- cally engaged, politically formed. This is not true of other intellectual domains: physics and mathematics, say, are socially detached, apolit- ical. They have their own separate identity that transcends passing cultural moments; they occur in history but they are not of history. But philosophy, it may be felt, is inherently historical, and hence political in the broad sense. It feeds off history, societal context, and the affairs of the moment. It was different in ancient times and it may be different in the future; it may even be unrecognizable in the distant future. Philosophy is changeable and fluid, without any solid constant core – like literature, or politics itself.

I think this view is profoundly mistaken, though I understand its appeal. Philosophy consists of a fixed set of core problems that are invariant over time and social context. These problems have a spe- cific identity that is quite independent of political factors. A typical philosophy curriculum gives a fair sense of them: problems of meta- physics, epistemology, ethics, mind, language, logic, aesthetics, etc. I need not list these problems – we are familiar with them. They often take the form “What is X?” where X might be causality, time, space, knowledge, justification, the right, consciousness, reference, necessi- ty, beauty, etc. It is notoriously difficult to say what unites these many problems under the heading “philosophy”, but we know it when we see it: the problems strike us as peculiarly intractable, debatable, puz- zling, confusing, and fascinating. We call this quality philosophical, as in “That’s a philosophical question” or “Now you are getting philosoph- ical”. The quality does not normally belong to other types of ques- tions – questions that are factual or empirical or straightforwardly answerable. We are reduced to saying that philosophy is like jazz – you know it when you hear it. It is not easy to define the scope of other disciplines either, but at least we have short adjectives that give some sense of what the subject is all about. What is physics about?

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Well, there are many branches of physics, quite heterogeneous, but we can say (though not very illuminatingly) that they all concern the physical. In psychology, too, we find considerable heterogeneity and many branches, but at least we can say that they all concern the men- tal – even though that term covers a wide variety of phenomena. But in philosophy we seem stuck with the adjective philosophical, which is especially unhelpful. We know the quality when we see it, but we find it hard to articulate it with any clarity (it is that quality – whatever it is – that gives rise to a certain sort of intellectual cramp or perplexity or bafflement). I don’t think this difficulty undermines the legitimacy of the subject – after all, philosophy includes pretty much every area of human endeavor – but it makes the question of the nature of philos- ophy hard to answer. We can say that philosophy is concerned with concepts, but that risks misunderstanding and is surely too narrow as it stands – and isn’t psychology also concerned with concepts? In what way is philosophy concerned with concepts, and to what end? What is the nature of its questions, and what method does it use to answer them1? We can reply that it is concerned with concepts philo- sophically, or that it deals with philosophical questions about concepts, or that it uses the philosophical method to analyze concepts: but this leaves us where we started. It isn’t false to say that philosophy is con- cerned with concepts – in fact, it is perfectly correct – but it doesn’t give us much to go on. We do better to list the standard philosophical problems and say: “That is what philosophy is”. If you want to know what it is for a question to be philosophical, then acquaint yourself with some philosophical problems: then it will become manifest to you. These problems constitute the subject matter of what we call “philosophy”, and they are independent of time and context. They are self-standing, specific, and timeless. They transcend history.

How do the problems of philosophy relate to science? I wish to say two things about this: (a) the problems of philosophy are not scien- tific problems, or pre-scientific problems, and (b) philosophy is itself a science, but of a special sort. With respect to (a) it has often been maintained that philosophy is «continuous with science» – that it does not essentially differ from the accepted sciences. Perhaps it inte- grates or summarizes the sciences, or perhaps it is just more general but in the same line of business. One often hears it said, particularly

1 I discuss philosophy as conceptual analysis in C. McGinn, Truth by Analysis, Oxford University Press, Oxford 2012.

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by scientists, but not only by them, that the history of philosophy is the history of parts of philosophy splitting off and becoming real sciences – as physics split off from “natural philosophy” to become the science it is, and as psychology is still in the process of doing. This is taken to be a good and necessary thing, as if the splitting off were a step towards intellectual respectability after a shady past. Thus, it is assumed that all of philosophy will eventually metamorphose into science, and that what does not achieve this happy transition will be left to wither in peace. I think this view is completely wrong: philos- ophy is not continuous with science and its history is not a process of peeling off to become science. For philosophy consists of a distinc- tive set of peculiarly philosophical problems that are independent of cultural context, which includes science. The problem of skepticism, say, is not a scientific problem, and will never become one; nor is the mind-body problem a scientific problem; nor are the problems of ethics; and so on. Philosophy is just a different kind of subject – being concerned with problems of a philosophical nature. It charac- teristically wants to know what something is (essentially is), or how a problematic phenomenon is possible (consciousness, free will, a priori knowledge), or how one thing is consistent with another (knowledge with fallibility, contingency with determinism, emergence with nov- elty). In a very broad sense, philosophy is concerned with logical ques- tions – questions of definition, essence, entailment, and how things fit coherently together. It is about constructing a logically satisfying worldview. It aims to make things rationally intelligible (as opposed to discovering particular facts). It uses reason to make sense of things, and reason is an exercise of the logical faculties (not the sensory fac- ulties). Philosophy is about the logical structure of reality.

Regarding philosophy in this way, as a logical enterprise, opens the door for a salutary extension of the word “science”. Philosophy is a science – a logical science, a formal science. I like to call it “ontical science” by analogy with “physical science”: it is the general science of being. It is the science of what things essentially are, what their con- stitutive nature is; this is why definition looms so large in philosophy. What exactly is knowledge, free will, consciousness, moral goodness, necessity, causation, beauty, truth, the self, rationality, and so on? Philosophy approaches such questions in a scientific spirit, employing reason, careful reflection, logical deduction, and theory construction. It is not poetry, or mysticism, or propaganda, or politics. Its results are checkable, rationally debatable, and intended to state the objective

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truth. One of its methods is the thought experiment – imagining pos- sible states of affairs and asking how a given concept would apply in them. This is a genuine type of experiment – a procedure in which the outcome is not prejudged and which can be repeated by others. For example, imagine a situation in which someone has a true belief but no justification for that belief: does this person have knowledge? We can perform such experiments and obtain inter-subjectively verifiable results (which is not to say they are infallible – but what experiment is?). They can even be described as “empirical” in the sense that we can learn from the experience of performing them. I have discussed this in detail elsewhere and will not repeat what I have already said2. The key (and encouraging) point is that there is nothing to prevent us from describing philosophy as a science, though a science with its own distinctive character. It is a science in its own right and will not devolve into another type of science: it is a sui generis science. Just as the formal science of mathematics will never turn into physics or psychology, so the “ontical science” of philosophy will never turn into any other sci- ence. Its problems are what they are and not some other thing. Thus we can say that the historical subject of philosophy – that core of timeless philosophical problems – is a science in its own right. It is not “continuous” with other sciences in the sense of being just like them, or parasitic on them; rather, it is a science that belongs alongside the other sciences, an equal member of the club. We have the sciences of physics, chemistry, biology, psychology – and philosophy. Philosophy is “being-in-general science” (an Aristotelian conception).

To describe philosophy as a science raises expectations of progress analogous to the progress obtained by the other sciences. But does philosophy make this kind of progress? Doesn’t its lack of comparable progress undermine its title to qualify as a science? My reply is that these expectations are prompted more by conversational implicature than by logical (semantic) implication. Strictly speaking, the question of scientific status and the question of scientific progress are logically independent: the former does not entail the latter. Non-science can make progress and science can fail to make progress. You can make progress writing a novel or a biography without those things being forms of science, and some parts of science can be mired in contro- versy and resistant to progress (quantum theory, the origin of life, the psychology of creativity). Some sciences are simply more difficult than

2 Cf. C. McGinn, The Science of Philosophy, «Metaphilosophy» 46/1 (2015), pp. 84-103. 93

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others; it is really a complete fluke that astronomy has made the pro- gress it has (fortunately light travels very fast and preserves informa- tion). The question is controversial but I would say that philosophy has made impressive progress over the last 2000 years, though large parts of it have not made the kind of progress we see in the other sciences. The reasons for this are debatable, but I think we can agree that central philosophical problems have not yielded to solution in the way many scientific problems have. One possible view is that philosophy bumps up against the limits of human intelligence – that it consists of “myster- ies”, not “problems”3. In philosophy we are mapping the outer limits of our intellectual capacity, which must be finite and specific if we are evolved creatures with limited brains (like all other creatures on earth). We are using our science-forming capacities to do philosophy, as we do in the other sciences (empirical and formal), but these capacities have their necessary inbuilt limits – and philosophical problems tax these limits. This is no detriment to the idea that philosophy is a type of science; it is just an especially difficult type of science. If we imagine beings intellectually inferior to us trying to do physics, we can envisage that they are recognizably capable of scientific thought but their tal- ents do not match our own – maybe they can get as far as Newtonian physics but then their brain engine runs out of gas. Just so there might be beings that can handle philosophical problems better than we can, but that doesn’t mean that we aren’t really doing philosophy. Progress is a matter of contingent intellectual capacity; being a science is a matter of the intrinsic nature of the questions. Philosophy, considered as a set of questions, qualifies as a science, even though our capacities in doing it are less than stellar. Or maybe, every possible thinker would stumble over philosophical questions, given their intrinsic character; but that would just show that philosophy is a very difficult science. After all, Newton’s intellect was defeated by the nature of the gravitational force, as he admitted, but that doesn’t mean Newtonian physics isn’t really science. In fact, I would say that nearly all the sciences are confronted by deep mysteries, some possibly terminal, but they can still describe themselves as science. Not all science is successful science.

Philosophy is particularly concerned to get clear about things, so clarification is a central part of its mandate. It tries to make sense of things by clarifying them. It aims to render the world intelligible.

3 I discuss this in C. McGinn, Problems in Philosophy: The Limits of Inquiry, Blackwell, Oxford 1993.

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The italicized words here are all redolent of language: words can be clarified, sentences can make sense (or not), and language is intelli- gible (though not always). This suggests that meaning is central to the philosophical enterprise: the philosopher is a student of meaning. We can understand this in two ways: the meaning of life, and the meaning of language. Both have been thought to come within the purview of philosophy, and properly so. It has even been maintained that philosophy is exclusively concerned with linguistic meaning – its sole job is to clarify the meaning of words and sentences. “What does it all mean?” might be thought to encapsulate the philosophical quest4. The narrow interpretation of this is that philosophy asks what words mean. This is not as narrow as it doubtless sounds, since word meaning brings in extra-linguistic reality, but so formulated the question leaves a lot out. I want to suggest, however, that it captures the essence of the matter: for philosophy is certainly concerned with intelligibility – though not only of language. Philosophy is concerned with the intelligibility of the world. It tries to make intelligible sense of the world by clarifying it. We want, for example, to understand the nature of causation (the thing, not the word), so we try to clarify what it involves; perhaps it appears unintelligible to us and we need to restore it to intelligibility (as some have thought regarding causal necessity). We want to clarify its logic (essence, nature) so that it can meet our standards of intelligibility. We can do this by analyzing the word, or we can focus on the thing itself and try to discern its intelligible nature. Either way we are trying to achieve clarity by demonstrating intelligibility. The human mind wants to make sense of things, and philosophy is the tool for achieving this. So philoso- phy is a sense-making science – a science that aims at clarification, at rendering things intelligible. Sometimes it fails – as with rendering the mind-brain nexus intelligible, or the nature of free action, or a priori knowledge. Sometimes it delivers respectable results: the anal- ysis of definite descriptions, modal logic, and the nature of the good (though all three areas are not without controversy). The science of philosophy makes progress in matters of clarification; it increases the intelligibility of things. But even when it doesn’t succeed that is its ideal – it is intelligibility-oriented. Language is one domain in which

4 This is in fact the title of a book by Thomas Nagel intended as an introduction to phi- losophy, cf. T. Nagel, What Does It All Mean? A Very Short Introduction to Philosophy, Oxford University Press, New York 1987.

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the project of clarification can be applied; our conceptual scheme is another; and the world in general is a third area of potential clarifica- tion. Total clarity is the aim of every philosopher (or should be).

One particularly sharp way in which questions of intelligibility come up is in the shape of the logical paradoxes. These are peculiar to philosophy and vividly illustrate its essential character: philoso- phy generates them and then it tries to solve them. Philosophy is a paradox-obsessed subject. There are many such: Zeno’s paradoxes of motion, the sorites paradox concerning vagueness, Russell’s class paradox, the semantic paradoxes, and others. In addition to these we have assorted “puzzles” – kinks in our thinking that resist easy res- olution. Many papers begin “The Puzzle of…”. Both paradoxes and puzzles threaten intelligibility: they make seemingly straightforward things into confusing and confounding things. To resolve them some clarification is required, but this is not always forthcoming – they can be infuriatingly persistent (puzzlingly so). When paradoxes spread (as with the sorites paradox), they threaten to undermine the intelligibility of everything. They are the nightmare of reason, and they are particularly disturbing to philosophers: for they threaten to undermine reason from within. What this shows from a meta-philo- sophical perspective is that philosophy is in the business of securing intelligibility, which is a none too easy thing to do. We don’t even understand how paradoxes arise: is it from our language, or our thought, or the objective world? And the last thing a philosopher wants is to discover paradox at the heart of his favorite theory (as with Frege’s set-theoretic reconstruction of arithmetic). Paradox is the ultimate philosophical embarrassment.

Philosophy is also a subject of extreme contrasts, and this too is part of its identity. The disagreements within philosophy are vast: idealism versus materialism, Platonism versus nominalism, conse- quentialism versus deontology, dualism versus monism, realism ver- sus anti-realism, reductionism versus anti-reductionism. These are not just disagreements of detail but of fundamentals. There are even disagreements about whether whole swathes of reality really exist: do minds really exist, do bodies really exist, and do moral values really exist? If philosophy is a science, it is a remarkably contentious one. But again, though this certainly sets philosophy apart from other subjects, it is just part of the very nature of philosophical questions: for these questions precisely concern the most fundamental issues about the nature of reality. If a subject sets out to deal with such fundamental

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questions, we should expect large disagreements to show up – that is just what philosophy is. It isn’t that philosophers as a group are par- ticularly argumentative, or stubborn, or dim-witted; it is just that the questions inevitably produce these kinds of extreme opposition. That is what philosophy is about – it is the science of deep disagreement. It thrives on lack of consensus. Scientists are sometimes critical of the lack of consensus in philosophy compared to their own fields, but really there is nothing at all surprising here – philosophy is designed to produce deep differences of opinion. This is part of what makes it alive and exciting. It would be terrible – the end of philosophy – if a dull uniformity were to set in. In any case, consensus is not the hall- mark of anything deserving the name “science”. What matters are rational methods, objective criteria of cogency, clarity of formulation, and standards of quality5.

Can philosophy ever come to an end? What would its end state look like? I think other subjects can, in principle, come to an end, and probably will before humans do. The sciences can end in one of two ways: all the problems are eventually solved, or some are not solved but never will be (at least by humans). There are only so many facts to dis- cover, laws to state, and theories to be confirmed. But I think this is less clear for philosophical science: here it is not clear what the end state would look like. Can we imagine everyone deciding that materialism is true, say, and simply abandoning all other metaphysical theories as so much outmoded philosophical detritus? What could possibly lead to that result? It is not as if any new observations might be made that would settle the matter in favor of materialism. Or could it be settled

5 The Oxford English Dictionary (OED), gives two definitions of “science”: 1) «the intellectual and practical activity encompassing the systematic study of the structure and behavior of the physical and natural world through observation and experiment», and 2) «a systematically organized body of knowledge on any subject». Philosophy clearly qualifies under the second definition, but it arguably qualifies under the first definition too, once we allow for thought experiments and are not too restrictive about “observation”. For “observe”, the dictionary gives «notice; perceive» and «detect in the course of a scientific study»: at a pinch we can make philosophical method fall under these definitions, since it may involve notic- ing certain things about concepts (or words) and it detects truths in its own way (sometimes called, misleadingly, “intuition”). Thus the philosopher may be said to “observe” (notice, perceive), for example, that knowledge is not just true belief. The operative terms in the dictionary definition are «systematic study» and «sys- tematically organized»: rigor and system are the hallmarks of science. Academic philosophy qualifies; barroom chat does not.

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once and for all whether consequentialism or deontology is the cor- rect moral theory? Such debates seem internal to philosophy, part of what philosophy is. By contrast, disagreements in physics are hardly internal to it: they typically arise from lack of data or failure of theo- retical imagination (or are really philosophical in nature). Neither of those diagnoses would seem to apply to philosophical disagreement. If anything could put an end to philosophy, it seems to be beyond our imagination – a literally inconceivable intellectual revolution. We don’t know what it would be for philosophy to end. Neither can we imagine the problems of philosophy being replaced by other problems hither- to unknown to the philosophical tradition: it couldn’t be that all our current philosophical problems are solved but news ones arise to take their place. What could these be? We have a pretty solid grasp of what the problems of philosophy are; it is hard to see how we could have missed a whole range of new problems. So our current problems are the ones that will stay in existence as the centuries pass by, probably never to receive definitive solution (short of a superhuman stroke of genius or a cerebral upgrade of some remarkable sort). Progress will no doubt be made on these problems, as it has been made in the past, but the idea of an end to philosophy seems impossible to fathom. Philosophy is really a very peculiar subject, quite unlike other sub- jects; the last thing we should do is to try to squeeze it into some other box. And its problems are what make it what it is, these problems hav- ing a unique character (“philosophical”). It may be rightly classified as a science (why not so classify it?), but that is not to say much about its inherent nature. Philosophy is about as puzzling as the problems it deals with. Meta-philosophy is as difficult as philosophy, because it is just another department of philosophy6.

colinmcginn.net/blog cmg124@aol.com

6 Discussions of the nature of philosophy are often tacitly normative: the author is recommending a particular approach to the subject, rather than simply describing its actual content. I intend my remarks here to be descriptive: this is the nature of phi- losophy as it has actually been practiced – though I daresay many people will contest my conception of philosophy. I certainly don’t think it is an easy question to answer.

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Morality and the Skeptical Paradox

 

Morality and the Skeptical Paradox

 

We follow moral rules; deontological ethics revolves around such rules. We make it a rule to keep our promises, not lie, not steal, etc. Even if we are consequentialists we follow the rule of utility maximization. What we call our conscience directs us to follow such rules. Virtue consists in adhering to the rules of morality. But if that is so, Kripke’s skeptical paradox should apply to morality.[1] I won’t rehearse all of this, but the point is straightforward enough. We can envisage someone who keeps his promises up to time t and then diverges (as we would say) from that rule; he insists that this is the rule he was following all along. How can we refute this claim? What can we cite about his past actions that rules out the deviant moral rule? No fact we can point to restricts the moral rule to the one we naturally assume. What does it consist in to follow the promising rule? It can’t be overt behavior up to time t; it can’t be a qualitative state of consciousness; and it can’t be a disposition to behave in certain ways. We might be tempted by that last suggestion, but then we recall that people can make mistakes about their promises without thereby following a deviant rule—they might just forget they have made the promise or lose track of time when the moment comes. If we phrase it in terms of virtues, we have no account of the fact that constitutes having a particular virtue: none of the facts about the virtuous person adds up to the virtue—behavior, states of consciousness, or dispositions to behave. Virtues are normative, telling us what we ought to do, but no facts that we can cite ground such normativity. None of this is surprising if Kripke’s rule-following considerations apply to the concept of rule in general—moral rules are just a special case. Platonic forms, inner voices, biblical commandments, pangs of conscience, urges and tingles—none of these can constitute following moral rules. For we can always envisage alternative moral rules that are logically consistent with them. So the moral skeptic contends.

            What about the skeptical solution? In Kripke’s telling this consists in finding assertibility conditions concerning agreement with the community: the individual speaker conforms to a community-wide pattern of use. There is no fact of following the promising rule, but there is a set of justifying conditions that guide our ascriptions of such rules. What is the analogue for moral rules? Easy: we can assert that someone is following a moral rule when his or her behavior matches that of the community to which he or she belongs. That is, we take a page out of the relativist’s playbook and say that a particular virtue can be ascribed to an individual if and only if that individual’s behavior matches the behavior of other members of society that are already agreed to exhibit the virtue. This skeptical solution has two components: an assertibility conditions theory and a social theory. Someone might want to reject the first component but endorse the second component, holding that the fact that constitutes virtue is of some second-class kind that questions the universality of virtue. The idea would be that moral rules have no validity outside of a social context, so that they may vary from one society to another. The moral skeptic denies the absoluteness of morality but accepts that we can usefully talk about morality as long as we recognize that it is relative to a particular society. He saves the talk while abandoning the robust existence of moral facts. The structure of his position matches that of Kripke’s semantic skeptic: no fact about the individual can constitute following a moral rule (or having a moral virtue), but we can still make sense of ascriptions of moral rule-following in terms of social relations.

            The interesting point here is that this is a familiar position about morality, unlike with the case of meaning and linguistic rules. Moral nihilism combined with moral relativism is an established view of morality (I don’t say that it’s true). Many people spontaneously believe that there is nothing to ground moral judgment in the individual case but only arises in the context of the social group. If I ask what I should do, I can find no fact about myself to give me the answer: no acquaintance with a Platonic form, no compelling inner voice, no external authority, no sacred text, no feeling of revelation, no reliable intuition, no irrepressible inclination, no past behavior—nothing that could force me to choose one way rather than another. All anyone has is the approval and censure of the social group; there is nothing to the existence of moral rules or virtues apart from that. So in the case of morality there is nothing surprising or shocking in the skeptical paradox: it isn’t a paradox at all, just a new way to articulate an old truism (as the nihilist supposes). It is just plain common sense. The existentialists were onto this long ago in their assertion that the free human will is the sole ground of moral discourse: nothing in perception or reason or science or religion can ground moral action—we must simply decide. Nothing compels us to act in certain ways deemed moral; morality is a matter of pure freedom in interaction with others. My being moral is not a given fact about me but a freely chosen construction (a fiction, we might say). My personality doesn’t contain various pre-existing virtues but simply expresses the results of my radical freedom. We might try to save our ordinary moral discourse by situating it in a social context, but the idea of the individual following moral rules is a chimera. If this can be established by means of Wittgenstein-inspired arguments, all well and good, but it is hardly earth-shattering news. The nihilist-existentialist might indeed be unimpressed by the original application of these arguments to the case of meaning, observing that he has already been there and done that in the area of morality. Kripke has merely generalized what is obviously the case for so-called moral rules.

            Alternatively, the confirmed moral realist might find himself discomfited: he thought there were moral facts that could guide behavior, but the skeptical paradox attacks that idea. Whatever we cite (e.g. Moore’s non-natural primitive property of the good) we find that deviant courses of action are possible consistently with the facts; nothing in our moral psychology can dictate a particular course of action. We thought there were robust virtues that people either had or lacked, but it turns out that this is a mare’s nest—no such thing can be detected in the mental landscape. If moral behavior is construed as following moral rules, then there is no such thing according to the skeptic; and even if virtues are not understood in a rule-based way, there is still a problem about saying what they are. Moral psychology turns out to look like semantic psychology, as the skeptic sees it—a kind of blank slate, an empty spontaneity. There are no meanings and there are no personality traits; at best there are communally accepted criteria for using the relevant vocabulary. I am not saying I accept this kind of conclusion—indeed I think there are convincing replies to it[2]—but I am saying that the issues are very similar and shed reciprocal light on each other. In particular, it is not clear what could constitute the kind of mental attribute required by semantic and moral rules. This has both an epistemological and a metaphysical aspect: we can’t find anything to justify our actions, and we can’t find anything to constitute the fact that we take to underlie them. We thus have no adequate psychology of meaning and morality, and for much the same reasons—the extreme elusiveness of the alleged psychological basis. This comes out in the question Wittgenstein pressed: how does the mind contain or anticipate future behavior (use or moral acts)? We want to say that it is already decided how someone will use words, or act in the future given his present mental state; but this leads to extraordinary ideas about what such containment would be—have I already thought of all the situations in which I have made a promise and kept it? My behavior, linguistic or moral, is spread out in time, and yet I mean something at a particular moment, or possess a virtue during a specific interval: how can we reconcile these two facts? We have an idea of potentiality here, but this idea is obscure and mysterious. My mind doesn’t run ahead to all future uses, or envisage all the future occasions on which moral action will be required of me. I just act as I do without consulting anything, and yet I feel fully justified: I act blindly, as Wittgenstein says. Again, it is not that I agree with all of this; I am simply pointing to the parallels. Moral and linguistic rules, virtues and meanings, present and future, inner and outer, facts and norms—all these concepts permeate both topics. The issues are remarkably similar. Each raises difficult questions in the philosophy of mind. What kind of fact is a virtue (or a personality trait in general), and how does it relate to temporally extended behavior? What is it grasp a moral rule and act on it? These are the very questions investigated by Kripke’s skeptic about meaning. He would have done well to bring in the moral case as precedent and prime example.[3]

 

[1] See Saul Kripke, Wittgenstein on Rules and Private Language (1982).

[2] One response is to insist that meanings and virtues are an irreducible kind of fact not to be explicated in terms of the kinds of facts to which Kripke limits himself. Another is to claim that the facts that constitute meaning and virtue (and rule-following generally) are not available to us, yet perfectly real, i.e. adopt a mysterian position.  

[3] I have always thought that Wittgenstein’s complete lack of interest in moral philosophy limited his philosophical perspective. Imagine if he had decided to focus on moral rules not mathematical rules in the Investigations. And what would he say about the right and the good in connection with his philosophical naturalism? He had a strong interest in philosophical psychology and philosophy of mathematics but was remarkably silent on the philosophy of value (in the Tractatus this was consigned to what could only be shown). 

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