Experience and Naive Realism

Experience and Naïve Realism

Is there anything in sense experience that indicates the falsity of naive realism? For example, is there anything in sense experience that informs us that objects are not objectively colored? Or is it a matter of science and conceptual reflection? Do we know that naïve realism is false just by being subjects of experience, or is experience itself coy on the question? This is not an easy question, so let’s start with something simple and self-evident. Pain: is there anything about the experience of pain that tips us off that pain resides in us not in objects—that it is subjective not objective? Surely, there is: we feel pain in the body; we don’t perceive it in objects. My hand hurts not the rock that lands on it. Pain seems to me to be in me not in the external world independently of me. I am under no illusion about its location. I don’t need science or philosophy to convince me that naïve realism about pain is incorrect; it feels incorrect. You would have to be very naïve indeed to believe that pins have pain in them; pins merely have the power to produce pain in me. If our experience of color were like our experience of pain, we would never be naïve realists about color—and similarly for sounds, tastes, smells, and feels. Suppose colors were like pain: you experience them as in your body—you see your body change color depending on what’s in the environment. Your eyes are stimulated in such a way by a wavelength of light emitted by certain roses that your foot (say) turns red: those roses have the power to produce a certain color effect in or on your body. You don’t see the roses as red; they merely cause a part of your body to be seen as red. The redness is perceived in your body not in the roses, though you may describe roses with the word “red”, meaning that they have a red-producing power in relation to your body. No way would you be a naïve realist about red (sic) roses—you would have no inclination to ascribe redness to roses. Redness would be like pain—manifestly over here not out there. Am I right? You’re damn right I’m right. But this is not the situation with our experience of color: we do experience color as in the objects. Why we do is an interesting question, but it is indubitably so. We really are under the illusion that objects are objectively colored (assuming that naïve realism is false of color). Grass is not green though it sure as hell looks green. Doesn’t that settle the question? Phenomenology endorses naïve realism; it doesn’t contradict it. It is therefore eminently understandable that we are prone to accept naïve realism, even if we ultimately reject it on theoretical grounds. Naïve realism is the common sense of sense perception; it is what experience directly tells us, rightly or wrongly.

So, is there nothing in naïve experience that invites rejection of naïve realism? Is it impossible to scrutinize sense experience and see that naïve realism is false? I have tried the experiment: diligently I have attended to my experience and strained to discover a clue to the falsity of naïve realism. But I have come up with nothing (try it yourself). Experience seems stubbornly wedded to a false theory of perception. Strange, but true—why not make color perception like pain perception? Are all animals under the same illusion? Do we all hallucinate colors from dawn to dusk? Do we never see colors correctly? Our senses really ought to tip us off about the truth-value of naïve realism, but they refuse to—they insist on asserting a false theory. We can’t even surgically fix our eyes and brain to rectify the error; no one has ever perceived the color of roses in their body (or in their mind). No one perceives color as they perceive pain. However, this doesn’t mean that experience contains no other type of clue; there might be other facts about ordinary sense experience that tip us off about the truth of the matter. And I think there are—there are things that even a wee child will notice about its experience that give the game away. I will call the thing in question “variability-without-penalty” (VWP for short). Your senses can vary in the qualities they present without you running into trouble. Here we encounter the inverted spectrum, warm and cool water, taste variations, and the like: all these allow for subjective variations that are consistent with equality of bodily well-being. The same volume of water can be felt as varying in temperature without there being any difference in the condition of the body (your skin is not physically affected). It is not so with objective qualities: variations of shape do affect the well-being of the body, because shape is an objective feature of the environment that can cause damage to the body. We are all familiar with the subjective variations of water temperature that have no bearing on potential harm to the body. The reason for this is that the corresponding subjective qualities reside in us not the objective world; it doesn’t vary when we vary. Food tastes appetizing or unappetizing depending on our degree of satiation, so no one thinks that the appetizing quality of food is inherent in food; we don’t think the food must have changed when we lose interest in eating more of it. We don’t need sophisticated science or philosophy to inform us that food is not appetizing in itself but only relative to our needs and desires. Maybe we experience food as intrinsically tasty, but we know from elementary experience that this quality comes and goes according to us not the food in itself. But the same is not true of the chemical composition of food or its mass and volume. Ordinary daily experience gives us the information we need to accept that total naïve realism is mistaken. We are not fooled by the phenomenology of eating—or seeing, hearing, and touching. Experience tempts us into the naïve realist error, but it also provides the wherewithal to withstand the temptation. This is why people are so ready to accept that sensory qualities are in us not the world—they came to this conclusion long ago just by being sensing creatures. Experience itself is in error, but the experiencer is not; he knows better than to trust the immediate deliverances of sense perception uncritically. We are all natural-born critics of our own experience. We know quite well that it would be pretty stupid to sign on to naïve realism in its most naïve form. Just consider your experience of stepping into a swimming pool and gradually getting used to the water temperature; it didn’t change, you did–obviously. Similarly for your eyes adjusting to brightness when you wake up in the morning. Experience can be quite candid about advertising its subjective origins, despite its surface dishonesty—it’s like a liar who gives you the wink. Experience admits its own error.

There is another source of error correction: intersensory confirmation. You can check that your eyes are giving you the right shape of an object by touching it, but you can’t do the same with color. This, too, is completely familiar to even the most untutored of perceivers. It tells us that perceived shape is inherent in objects but perceived color is not. Likewise, we don’t put food under the microscope in order to determine whether it is appetizing or not, or stroke it. Sense-specificity is the mark of subjectivity. How could color be intrinsic to objects if it was only perceptible by one sense? Thus, we cut down the number and range of objective properties of things; we reject the multiplicity of properties recommended by our sense experience. Again, this is intellectually primitive stuff not university-level learning. It is quite wrong to think that science alone has taught us the falsity of naïve realism, or even that reflective common sense has; the lesson is present in the simplest of perceptual facts, available to any two-year old or chimpanzee (or shellfish). I like to think that the octopus has never been a benighted naïve realist: it knows that felt temperature depends (partly) on it not the surrounding water and that its tentacles can correct visual misattributions of shape and size. The wonder is that the senses insist on attributing subjective qualities to objective things, as if we will be fooled. The fact is that we live with what we know to be an illusion—the entire way we sense external objects. We know we are erroneous beings, error-prone in our most primitive means of knowledge acquisition. We know we live in a kind of deceptive sensory prison that we can’t escape—the prison of sensation. Pain doesn’t deceive us about its location, but our senses are constantly telling us lies about where the qualities it presents to us exist. We are essentially brains in a vat, victims of an evil demon, living in a dream world—prisoners of our own misleading sensorium (our lying eyes). We can’t find a way to sidestep it and confront reality as it actually is. But we know we are in a sensory prison; we are not deceived about that. Our jailors at least have the decency to inform us of our imprisoned state.[1]

[1] I think this position explains the peculiar ambivalence we feel about naïve realism, and our natural oscillation on the question. For we are, on the one hand, smitten with it by our senses (our windows on the world) and yet, on the other, wise to its blandishments. At every moment our senses relentlessly drum it in, but at the same time elementary experience contradicts it. We know it to be false, but our everyday consciousness is firmly committed to it. Our knowledge that it is false, attested by the simplest of experiences, can make no dent in our sensory constitution; it keeps on insisting that the world is replete with qualities we know it doesn’t possess. This is the uncomfortable and irremediable truth.

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Descriptions and Names

Descriptions and Names

The distinction between names and descriptions is not as sharp as we tend to suppose. We are prone to think that names are purely denotative (tags, labels) and descriptions are purely connotative (attributional, predicational), but actually the two overlap. If you favor a description theory of names, you are still up to your neck in names; and if you prefer to take names as primitive, you are still wallowing in descriptive content. There is no such thing as pure description or pure denotation. Pure description theories of descriptions are false, and pure denotation theories of names are false. Both are both. They are not mutually exclusive.

In the case of names, there are several kinds of descriptive content that they carry: a certain natural kind, male or female, family lineage, nationality, language spoken, social class, historical period, being called by the name in question, etc. A person named “Susan Smith” is thereby classified as a human being, female, of the Smith family, likely to be of British descent, a speaker of English, probably not upper class, born at a certain period of history, not nameless, and called “Susan Smith”. There are no names that are purely denotational (“logically proper names”), having no meaning apart from their bearer; that idea is a myth. And we all tend, as users of names, to know these descriptions, or someone in the linguistic community does. They also play a role in fixing the reference of the name—they tell you who or what is in question. They are not purely decorative; they have a semantic function. No one has ever spoken a language in which the names lack such descriptive content. We might even say that names necessarily have such content; it is essential to their being names. The whole institution of names, from baptism to burial, womb to tomb, is steeped in these connotations. Names have sense as well as reference; they contain information. It is not possible to analyze them by means of descriptions that don’t express this sense. Their meaning is not exhausted by their bearer. They are not semantically simple.

Why do I say that descriptions are always name-involving? Two reasons: one, they often contain proper names, and two, the predicates they contain are themselves name-like. Thus “the capital of France” and “the cat in the corner”.  They need to contain names because we don’t typically have purely general descriptions to hand (like “the first dog born at sea”), since we often lack that kind of individuating knowledge; and terms like “cat” are precisely names of natural zoological kinds. They are not, on their face, definite descriptions of the denoted natural kind. Also, adjectives and artifact terms are name-like: “square”, “blue”, “table”, “television”. These all stand for (denote) some attribute or kind of thing: they are classified as “common names”. Naming is not restricted to names of concrete individuals; we name qualities and kinds as well as particulars. So, descriptions don’t dispense with names; they depend on names. You don’t get rid of names by replacing them with descriptions, because the description will contain further names, particular or general. The idea of a purely descriptive name-free language is also a myth. Actually, all language depends on names; we can’t eliminate names and replace them with descriptions, because descriptions are made of names. If we can’t make sense of names, we can’t make sense of language. Language consists of names (“and” is the English name for logical conjunction).

Thus, names are inherently descriptive and descriptions are inherently nominative. The distinction is bogus. Every word of a natural language is both descriptive and nominative—a description and a name. Sense and reference, denotation and connotation, intension and extension. Meaning is inherently connotative and denotative simultaneously. There can’t be theories that are connotational but not denotational or vice versa. Language relies on both working together. The quest for a theory that is purely one or the other is quixotic. The words “Susan Smith” and “navy blue” work in much the same way—both are descriptive names of something (a person or a quality). The name-description distinction, as commonly understood, is an untenable dualism.

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Nabokovian Mysterianism

Nabokovian Mysterianism

I came across the following passage in Brian Boyd’s weighty biography of Nabokov: “Space, time, the two prime mysteries. The transformation of nothing into something cannot be conceived by the human mind.”[1]Two points stand out here. First, he regards space and time as the two prime mysteries—not consciousness and free will, say. That is, the non-mental universe presents the greatest of mysteries. And not just time but space too. Second, he regards the mystery as a function of the human mind; he doesn’t think that the transformation of nothing into something is intrinsically miraculous or contrary to nature. He believes the mystery is subjective not objective. He follows this brief statement with this: “The torrent of time—a mere poetical tradition: time does not flow. Time is perfectly still. We feel it as moving only because it is the medium where growth and change take place or where things stop, like stations”. Time is not growing or changing; it exists all at once, changelessly. This is hard to understand: our conception of time is closely tied to our experience of it. Yet Nabokov seems convinced that time is objectively static and fixed. In these remarks I perceive the authentic mysterian spirit. The author of Lolita was a member of the school of mysterians.

[1] Vladimir Nabokov: The American Years, p.379. It comes from a note written in 1959. When I was nine and not far along in my philosophical studies Nabokov was formulating the position I would later come to adopt.

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Descriptions in Disguise

Descriptions in Disguise

One might have thought that the description theory of names had been bashed enough; I propose to bash it some more. It hasn’t been bashed from every angle; indeed, it positively invites further bashing, given its audacity. The theory is quite disrespectful to names, insinuating that descriptions are the superior semantic citizen. We can break the question down into three parts, corresponding to three locutions that crop up in these investigations: disguise, synonymy, and abbreviation. Names are said to be disguised descriptions, synonymous with descriptions, and abbreviations of descriptions—are any of these statements true? Each locution denotes a two-place relation: are names and descriptions really related by these relations? I am not discussing the usual questions of speaker knowledge, referential rigidity, and scope distinctions; I am focusing on the correct characterization of the relation between names and descriptions—is it one of disguise, synonymy, and abbreviation?

First, disguise: is it true that a name is a description in disguise? This implies that you might be fooled by a name into thinking it is not a description when it really is one. It doesn’t look like a description, but we are told that it is one. But how is that possible given the theory? For synonymy is not open to the possibility of disguise: if “a” is synonymous with “b”, then anyone competent with both expressions will know that they are synonymous; it will be quite self-evident. If you know what “bachelor” means and you know what “unmarried man” means, then you know a priori and with certainty that they are synonyms; you can’t wonder whether they are. But you can wonder whether the name “Plato” is synonymous with the description “the teacher of Aristotle”—that is why it is a philosophical question whether it is. So, the name can’t be a description in disguise, because then it would be an open question whether the name is synonymous with the description; but it can’t be an open question if they are really synonyms. The two ideas are inconsistent. And how is the disguise supposed to work—is it like some sort of mask? How does a description disguise itself as a name—that is, how does the meaning of a description disguise itself as the meaning of a name? Does it pretend to belong to a different semantic category by curling up into a ball or by wearing a different outfit? The whole notion of disguise here is pure metaphor. How can meanings come in disguises? If they do, they can escape detection and pass for another kind of meaning; but that is incompatible with the description theory, which insists on synonymy. Synonymy is transparent, but disguise is opaque. And don’t say the disguise takes the form of a different word, because that is true of ordinary synonyms, which are semantically transparent. Theorists have opted for the word “disguise” because names are plainly not ordinary synonyms of descriptions, so they need to introduce some machinery to explain this fact. Are there any bona fide cases of semantic disguise in language—cases in which we would all agree that one kind of expression is disguising itself as another? Not that I can see; the idea is manifestly ad hoc. The word “bachelor” is not a simple noun that acts as a disguise for the adjective-noun combination “unmarried male”; there is nothing misleading or deceptive about it. We don’t have to rip off the disguise to reveal the synonymy.

Second, synonymy itself: are names and descriptions synonymous? We know about the counterexamples that have been produced against this claim (Kripke et al), but there is another way to question it. The relation of synonymy is symmetrical, so descriptions must be synonymous with names, actual or possible. So, why don’t we have name theories of descriptions? The description means the same as the name (suppose we started with a direct reference theory of names). Then we would have a non-descriptive purely referential theory of the meaning of definite descriptions! Dialectically, we have begged the question against the direct reference theory. But there is this further point: why aren’t all descriptions synonymous with names not just some? For every name there is a corresponding description (allegedly), but why not conversely? There could be if speakers wanted it that way—just introduce one! The name is really always loitering in latent form, waiting to be recognized; the semantic category of names is implicit in the semantic category of descriptions, in virtue of the alleged synonymy. But that seems implausible: names look like a genuine enrichment of the semantic resources of a language. And why bother with the category of descriptions if you already have the category of names that are synonymous with them? Surely, we are dealing with two distinct categories of expression. Descriptions are not disguised names! Why are some descriptions synonymous with (existing) names while some are not? That is puzzling under the description theory.

Now we reach the nub of the description theory of names: names are said to abbreviate descriptions. The disguise comes from this because an abbreviation doesn’t look or sound like what it abbreviates; and the reason names don’t exist for every description is that speakers don’t need convenient abbreviations for all descriptions. Names exist in the presence of descriptions because they are a handy condensation of their lengthier brethren. It is a pragmatic matter. Names are not semantically useful—there is nothing they can do semantically that descriptions can’t do better–but they are pragmatically useful. That is the reason for the apparent difference, and the excuse for the metaphor of disguise. But this is a terrible idea—absolutely pathetic, in fact. There are two points, both perfectly obvious, yet devastating. First, names are not syntactically or orthographically or aurally abbreviations of descriptions—they look and sound nothing like descriptions. The name “Mike” is an abbreviation of “Michael”, but it is not an abbreviation of “the guy who owns the local pawn shop”; it is a distinct expression entirely. Second, names are not always shorter than descriptions, and certainly not necessarily shorter: people sometimes have long names! Even when they are relatively short people sometimes prefer to use a description, because it is more informative. Names are not short forms of descriptions in any meaningful sense. This is just a lazy label cooked up to paper over a glaring weakness in the description theory, namely that names are nothing like descriptions syntactically. We concede too much to the description theory if we let this patch-up job pass.

There is a more general point to be made: if a description theory of demonstratives is incorrect and seldom advocated, why should a description theory of names be thought compulsory? Names are naturally akin to demonstratives, so why not group them with demonstratives instead of descriptions? Neither type of expression requires extensive knowledge of the referent; names are commonly introduced via a demonstrative (“this child”); and context plays an important role in both cases—so why not align these two categories semantically? This is a semantic natural kind, unlike the natural kind of definite descriptions, which belongs with indefinite descriptions and other descriptive devices. It would surely be highly implausible to suggest that a demonstrative like “that man” is synonymous with some description referring to the person’s famous deeds or some such. Does “he” as uttered on an occasion mean “the guy drinking a martini”? So, it is a reasonable challenge to the description theorist to explain why he insists on that theory for names but not for demonstratives. There are clearly more referential devices in natural languages than those provided by the definite description, which anyway seems destined for a Russellian paraphrase and doesn’t refer at all. Enough bashing.[1]

[1] Why is that in philosophy all the best theories are false? The description theory is a nice theory, but it is riddled with problems. Likewise, materialism is an excellent theory, if it weren’t for the falsity. Ditto for emotivism, nominalism, panpsychism, phenomenalism, and all the rest.

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Most Influential Philosopher

Most influential Philosopher

I will restrict this question to recent philosophers. It not an easy question, because influence is hard to measure or estimate; and it varies over time, sometimes quite dramatically. It is certainly not me, not by a long chalk. There are the usual suspects, whom I do not need to mention. After giving it some thought, I am going to nominate Jerry Fodor. I think he overturned Wittgensteinian orthodoxy, or what remained of it. He destroyed behaviorism (preceded by Chomsky). For my money, Saul Kripke comes second: his influence was no doubt massive, but he didn’t destroy a whole school of thought—and Fodor kept at it, relentlessly. He also changed the way philosophers write (not always for the best). David Lewis had some influence, but it wasn’t so widespread. So did John Rawls, but it was limited to political philosophy. Thomas Nagel re-introduced depth to philosophy, and a concern with traditional problems. All these people had have had undeniable influence, but I think Fodor stands out, if not by a wide margin. I wonder what other people think.

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Breeding and Evolution

Breeding and Evolution

The most obvious theory of animal existence is one I have never heard mentioned. The standard theories are (i) that a divine being created all the species independently and (ii) that the existing species all evolved by natural selection from earlier species with no rational agency involved. We now know that the second theory is true. But there is a third alternative that never seemed to gain any adherents or even proponents, viz. that all the species are the result of intentional breeding. Darwin drew attention to the human breeding of animals and made an analogy to evolution by natural selection, but what about the idea that someone in the distant past bred all the animals that now exist? Wouldn’t that be the natural way to think before we knew much about world history? Some enterprising animal breeder decided to breed a massive variety of animal types, perhaps starting with something pretty unimpressive, say a mongoose (a pair of them). This theory is highly explanatory and fits the facts of breeding as we know it. Prima facie it is better than the two theories we are familiar with—less speculative and gappy. Why wasn’t this the dominant theory up till the time of Darwin? It would be possible to combine it with a religious theme: the original breeder was a type of god, perhaps on the level of the Greek gods (special but not that special). This theory doesn’t seem difficult to figure out. We could call it “breederism”. There could be a myth about how the breeder came up with the idea—say, his wife grew bored with mongooses and craved some variety in her animal companions, so she petitioned her powerful husband, Xeus, to do something about it. It all happened underground and then the species were let loose on the planet’s surface. I rather like this myth and I wonder why it was never invented. It’s not true, of course, but when did that ever deter people from framing and accepting theories? We have a puzzle in the history of ideas—why people didn’t come up with breederism.

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Not So Naive Realism

Not So Naïve Realism

We are usually faced with a binary choice between naive realism and sense-data theories, as if naive realism had only one strength or type. But really there is a spectrum of positions aptly so described, according to their degree of naivety. The strongest type—the most naïve—says that the objects of perception are objectively precisely as they seem subjectively: if the object seems to have a certain property, then it objectively has that property, whether it is perceived or not. If it seems elliptical, then it is objectively elliptical; if it seems red, then it is objectively red; if it seems hot, then it is objectively hot, etc. Such a view comes under pressure from visual illusion, quirks of perspective, lighting conditions, and species-specific perceptual biases and projections. It is too naïve (“naïve naïve realism”). We do well to dial it back a notch. Thus, we reach a more sophisticated form of naive realism: exclude anything idiosyncratic to the perceiver and peculiar to a particular viewing situation. This will give us the distinction between primary and secondary qualities, the latter assigned to the perceiving mind not to the mind-independent object. Perceptions of shape and size are objectively veridical, but not perceptions of color and smell. We can be naïve about some perceived properties, but not all. But this position too can come under pressure, on two fronts. First, physics might indicate that even these supposedly objective properties do not really belong to the objects, being rather projections from our innate perceptual geometry. Nothing is really straight or intrinsically heavy, not when you get right down to it. Second, nothing about the object is precisely as it seems—there is always some degree of inaccuracy. We don’t see objective shape exactly as it is, if we see it at all (i.e., the objective spatial properties of the object). Following this line of thought, we conclude that ordinary perception is never completely veridical with respect to the actual object—never perfectly true to it. Some properties may be better perceived than others, but none are perceived exactly as they objectively are. The subject always gets in the way, as it were. This may be called wised-up naïve realism, as opposed to the dumb kind.

But doesn’t that mean that naïve realism is actually false and that we only perceive sense-data (subjective states)? I think not, because there is room for very sophisticated naïve realism, as sophisticated as you like. We never see objects as they are in themselves, in any respect, but we still see them—or we still see them.For we don’t see anything else, certainly not our states of mind. We see real physical things, just not as they really (objectively, intrinsically) are. Their properties line up with perceived properties (they covary) and in virtue of this they are seen objects. The mug on my table lacks all the properties it seems to me to possess—a certain color, shape, weight, warmth, etc.—but I still see it, that physical thing. What else would I be seeing? So, we can still be naïve realists about perception, but highly sophisticated, scientifically well-informed, super-smart naïve realists—just not naive naïve realists. I rather suspect this position is correct: our perceptual experience never accurately represents the actual objective nature of things—it doesn’t need to from a biological point of view—but that doesn’t prevent us from seeing them. I see my mug all right (not my mind or brain), just not as it is in itself, independently of my visual system. Isn’t the same thing true of all seeing, human and animal? It tracks and mirrors, but it doesn’t transparently portray—it isn’t like a high-resolution photo. Even insects can be granted naïve realism, though they never get the object precisely right—as it is sub specie aeternitatus. I therefore advocate what may be called hyper-sophisticated naïve realism. We really do see physical objects but never as they are from their point of view. Our perceptions are all completely false of the things perceived, but we still perceive those things.

I hear a piercing bellow from the back row: “But don’t we really know the properties of the objects of perception?!” Answer: no, we don’t, not as a result of our perceptual experience anyway; but it is okay to talk as if we do. I can say that I know my mug is blue just by looking at it, but it is not really blue, not in the way it seems to me (it can be said to be relationally blue). Error does not preclude efficacy. Pragmatically, we can talk this way, but strictly speaking things are not as they seem, ever. We can even have true beliefs about the true objects of perception, recognizing their divergence from our perceptions of them; the rampant falsity of our perceptions does not prevent that. Perceptual error does not imply cognitive (intellectual) error. I can know the truth concerning what my senses deceive me about, e.g., the location of color. My senses can be riddled with illusion and falsehood, but my mind may be omniscient, or at least undeceived. The senses do their job, but objective accuracy is above their pay grade. They may not even be anywhere close to the truth, but still serve their biological purpose. The point I have been making here is that naïve realism is not committed to uncritical acceptance of the contents of perception, only the most simple-minded version of it is. Naïve realism can be as sophisticated and revisionary as you like; it can even describe physical objects as totally unlike the way they seem. They might be ideas in the mind of God, not material things in physical space with shape and size; but still, we are seeing them. We don’t know we are looking into the mind of God—we think we are looking into an ungodly physical space—but we are. Objects are what they are, however they seem to us, and they may be very different from the way they seem. We could be seeing noumenal objects all the time (ripples in a ten-dimensional continuum) despite the fact that they seem to us like solid bounded things in three-dimensional space. Perception can pierce its own veil. It has the power to transcend its content. It is like a telescope trained on an occluded star.[1]

[1] It is an interesting point that we are ready to accept that our perceptions of distant stars fail to reveal their intrinsic nature, even to be radically misleading, but we naively assume that nearby objects are seen pretty much as they really are. Why is this? Why aren’t nearby objects as underperceived, or misperceived, as distant stars? Yet we can still see them. Seeing is one thing, correctly characterizing is another. After all, you can see a person in disguise as someone he is not—yet you still see him.

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Bertrand Russell and Me

Bertrand Russell and Me

When I was young, I idolized Bertrand Russell—I idolized the man. It was largely because of him that I fled psychology into the arms of philosophy. But I am not the same kind of philosopher as Russell: my interests are different and always have been. I find his interests somewhat chilly and unnatural. I would say his main interest (his only interest really) is knowledge and skepticism. Everything else grows out of that: he is obsessed with doubt and the skeptical challenge (how can we know anything?). That question has never really troubled me, except academically; it isn’t a living problem for me. It doesn’t pulsate within me or keep me awake at night. Why this difference? Why the difference of intellectual temperament?

I mean this as a psychological question, specifically a child-psychological question. What is it about our background and upbringing that explains the difference? Why was he so obsessed with doubt and the possibility of knowledge? The answer is staring us in the face, though it wasn’t appreciated in Russell’s day. Namely: he lost both of his parents at an early age. His mother died of diphtheria in 1874 when he was 2 and his father died in 1876 of bronchitis (possibly also a broken heart) when he was 4. This was a double blow: he must have suffered acutely from maternal deprivation and paternal deprivation, even though he would have little or no memory of either parent. This is traumatizing stuff, inflicted on a barely rational infant. Just think of the shock to his heart and brain. No mother to hold and be close to and love; then, no father to admire and depend upon. His father’s deep depression over his wife’s early death would have hung heavy in the air, underscoring little Bertie’s own loss. His mother would have been an absent presence, actively non-existent. He knew of her, but he hardly knew her. In later life his parents would have seemed like Meinongian objects: subsisting in the recesses of memory but never robustly existing. Simply put, he didn’t know his parents—not as you and I know ours. He didn’t grow up with them around, save for a few short years, only surrogates for them. Wouldn’t it be natural for him to yearn for knowledge of what had been lost—long to be acquainted with those vanished figures? He might well grow skeptical of anything remaining in existence. He might be riddled with uncertainty in the marrow of his being. He would certainly not be psychologically normal. He might even find refuge in the certainty of mathematics and its ability to stay the course—as he confessed about his childhood (Euclid was his parental substitute). He was a lonely little boy, parentless, adrift, stricken with doubt and fear. Numbers became his Mum and Dad—and they are not too warm as parents. I, on the other hand, had a normal upbringing in this respect: my parents were always around, never in doubt, a source of security and certainty, enormously salient. So, I am not riddled with doubt, obsessed with existence and non-existence, in need of knowledge I don’t and can’t have. For children do need knowledge, particularly with regard to parental presence, and I had it but Russell didn’t. Accordingly, I am not deeply troubled by skepticism; it doesn’t frighten me. I am more interested in the nature and origin of things—not in their mere existence. Thus, my early interests were in chemistry and biology not mathematics and logic. I took existence for granted. Baby Bertie woke up one day and found his mother was dead; two years later the same thing happened with his father. Gone, just like that, never to return. I had no such soul-shattering experience. I gravitated towards butterflies and their life-cycle not numbers and their everlasting existence.

But there is a more perplexing part to this epistemological story: for Russell was deeply ambivalent about doubt and certainty. He craved certainty, needed it, felt it in his bones (at least in some areas—though here too doubts would creep in); but he also distrusted it, excoriated it, spurned it. His entire ethical and political life revolved around questioning dogma and extolling skepticism; not for nothing was he called a passionate skeptic—he was passionately skeptical. He hated certainty—while not being able to live without it. Why? The answer is not hard to find: his mother wanted Bertie raised as an agnostic, but his grandmother had other ideas and raised him as a dogmatic Christian. She raised him to believe that he was justifiably certain about highly uncertain things; not surprisingly, when adolescent rationality set in, he began questioning all of that and ended up an atheist. So, we have skeptical forces at work in his psyche combined with the love of logical and mathematical certainty: he was both certain of some things and profoundly skeptical about others. He wasn’t a passionate skeptic about logic! We might call this “Russell’s paradox”: certainty is to be deplored and avoided, on the one hand, but it is to be adored and celebrated, on the other. It was both good and bad, virtuous and vicious. It would be psychologically more harmonious to adopt a uniform attitude: either nothing is certain or everything is. Mathematics is certain but everything else (especially religion) is uncertain. Of course, his position is logically consistent, but psychologically there are stresses and strains at work (“cognitive dissonance”). And things get murky when we consider the paradoxes of set theory and the questionable epistemic status of atheism: the former undermines mathematical knowledge, the latter impugns the right to be certain of the non-existence of God. None of this is psychological plain sailing, especially if you have serious hang-ups about knowledge deriving from parental death.[1]

Back to Russell and me. We both love to write and we are both good at it. We both love philosophy, though we were initially trained in other subjects. We were both cancelled (by American zealots in both cases) and accused of all manner of nonsense. We both agonize over the folly of mankind and despise uncritical convention. We both enjoy humor (too much for our own good sometimes). We are both haughty and contemptuous where fools are concerned (that is, everywhere). But I am not obsessed with skepticism and human knowledge (its scope and limits), though I am interested in what is mysterious and what is not. I am more interested in the mind than he was, and more artistically inclined (music seems to have had little appeal for him). I like to know the make-up of things as opposed to knowing their existence or otherwise. I like fiction but not “logical fictions”. I wonder how things would have gone if our roles had been reversed: what if I came first and he started reading me in his late teens? What if he had been studying mathematics but found myautobiography inclining him in a philosophical direction? What if he had never lost his parents at an early age? Allow me, please, to fantasize that he would have become a philosopher in my mold and left skepticism to the existentially insecure (in both senses). In splendid old age he would then write about my influence on him and our philosophical differences. He might be heavily into ethics and aesthetics and wonder why I spent so much time worrying about what we can and cannot understand—why all the tormented mysterianism? Were my parents perhaps mysteries to me, though always around?[2]

[1] If the skeptic is right, your parents might never have existed; they might have always been dead. They might be illusions like everything else. You might have always been maternally deprived, despite appearances.

[2] It gives me pleasure to write about Bertie and me after all this time, a perk of old age. I never knew him, though I did once receive a letter from him, but he has been a continuous presence my whole life.

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