Knowledge and Belief

                                                Knowledge and Belief

 

 

According to the tradition stemming from Plato, knowledge is a special type of belief. In order to know that p one has to believe that p and meet various further conditions on that belief—that the belief be true, that it be justified, that it not be accidentally true, etc. The object of knowledge is a proposition of a certain sort, and one stands in the relation of belief to that proposition; in the jargon, knowing that p is a “propositional attitude” with belief as its foundation. We can call this the “doxastic theory of knowledge”: knowledge is belief restricted and qualified.

            But let us review some linguistic facts that cast doubt on this venerable theory. Consider the sentence “John knows that London is the capital of England”. We can paraphrase that sentence by “John knows the fact that London is the capital of England”, but we can’t paraphrase it by “John knows the proposition that London is the capital of England”. The latter sentence sounds like it means that John is acquainted with a certain proposition, if it means anything, but this isn’t what the original sentence means. On the other hand, the sentence “John believes that London is the capital of England” can be paraphrased by the sentence “John believes the proposition that London is the capital of England”, but not by the sentence “John believes the fact that London is the capital of England”. The latter sentence sounds like it means that John believes a certain fact, if it means anything, but that is not what the original sentence means. One believes propositions not facts (though one may believe in facts): propositions, not facts, are the proper objects of belief. But in the case of knowledge this is inverted: one doesn’t know propositions (except perhaps in the sense of being acquainted with them), but one does know facts. Thus we may conclude that belief and knowledge have different objects—propositions and facts, respectively. One believes propositions and one knows facts, and facts and propositions are different kinds of thing (we needn’t here go into exactly what kinds of thing they are).

            Then we can formulate a different theory of knowledge—call it the “factive theory”.  [1] Knowledge is a relation to facts not propositions, while belief is a relation to propositions not facts. Knowledge is not a propositional attitude but a factive attitude; hence it is not a form or type of belief. This doesn’t mean that belief is not a necessary condition for knowledge; it just means that knowledge itself is not logically a type of belief—as it might be, meritorious belief. To know something is not to believe a proposition of a special type (a true and justified proposition), but to stand in a relation to another type of entity altogether, viz. a fact. The knowledge relation is a sui generis relation not a special case of the belief relation. There are propositions and there are facts: belief maps onto the former, while knowledge maps onto the latter. The believing relation relates the subject to a proposition, while the knowing relation relates the subject to a fact.

            It is the same with perception and memory: these too are better handled by the factive theory than the doxastic theory. You can give “John perceives the fact that p” but not “John perceives the proposition that p” as a paraphrase of “John perceives that p” (if John perceives propositions at all, that is not the meaning of “John perceives that p”). And you can paraphrase “John remembers that p” by “John remembers the fact that p” but not by “John remembers the proposition that p”. So perceiving and remembering are not type of belief either, though there may be suitable beliefs in the offing. If I remember the fact that I went shopping yesterday, I presumably also believe the proposition that I went shopping yesterday: but these are not the same thing. The verbs “remember” and “believe” have a different grammar, a different logic. If we came to the view that perception, memory, and knowledge do not require an underlying belief after all—being psychologically more primitive than belief—that would not surprise the factive theorist, since he never thought they were special types of belief to begin with. There may not be beliefs and propositions in the picture at all, just facts and knowledge of them. Animals incapable of belief may still be able to stand in the relation of knowledge to facts–as when an animal knows it is about to be attacked but has no beliefs about the matter (it doesn’t form an opinion about its parlous condition).

            And then there is the matter of referential transparency and opacity. Suppose the sentence  “John knows the fact that Hesperus is a planet” is true: is “John knows the fact that Phosphorus is a planet” also true? I submit that the second sentence will also be true: John knows the fact underlying this kind of re-description (renaming). It is the same with “John perceives the fact that Hesperus is twinkling”: we can substitute “Phosphorus” here too. But notoriously we cannot make this kind of substitution inside belief contexts. We preserve the same fact under such substitutions, but not the same proposition. Therefore knowledge is not a type of belief: knowledge is referentially transparent, but belief is not. The context generated by “the fact that” does not have the logical properties of the context generated by “the proposition that”—because, intuitively, facts concern objects and properties in the world while propositions concern modes of presentation of objects and properties in the world. Mode of presentation (representation) doesn’t matter to facts, but it does matter to propositions—because propositions exist at the level of representation not at the level of things represented (sense not reference). Ascriptions of knowledge relate individuals to objective mind-independent facts, while ascriptions of belief relate individuals to representational entities. Hence the former ascriptions are transparent and the latter opaque.

            The sentence types “x knows that p” and “x believes that p” are superficially similar in form, which may fuel the doxastic conception of knowledge, but they differ in logical form and in the ontology presupposed. One expresses a relation between an individual and a fact, as revealed in the paraphrase containing “the fact that”; while the other expresses a relation between an individual and a proposition, as revealed in the paraphrase containing “the proposition that”. Different relations, different objects: so the former is not a special case of the latter.

 

Colin McGinn

  [1] I am using “factive” in a new sense—not the familiar idea that “knows” is a factive verb, i.e. implies the truth of what is known, but the idea that knowledge is to be understood as a relation to facts as part of its analysis.

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Induction Again

                                                            Induction Again

 

 

I will consider two instructive thought experiments. First, suppose there are people who have the following psychological deficiencies: (a) they have no concept of the natural powers or dispositions of objects, just concepts of manifest properties; and (b) they have no natural tendency, innate or acquired, to expect certain effects given the regularities in their past experience. All they have is an ability to register particular observable facts and remember what they have registered. For example, they have observed individual instances of the sun rising many times, but they cannot form the thought that the sun has the power or disposition to rise every day; nor do they have a natural psychological tendency to expect that the sun will rise when the hour comes. They do not think in terms of powers and they have no natural instinct to project into the future what they have experienced in the past; but they do observe individual instances of what are in fact broader laws of nature.

I suggest that in this state of psychological impoverishment they will not make inductive inferences from what they have observed. They will view what they have observed as simply a set of particular facts with no implications for what they have not observed. They will believe, for instance, that the sun sometimes rises or has risen such and such a number of times, but they will not believe that it always will rise or even that it is probable that it will. They will not see their limited experience as pointing to anything beyond that experience—to a generalization of law. This is because they lack the concepts or psychological habits that can ground such inferences. They won’t have the thought that the objects they observe have the power to bring about certain effects in virtue of their intrinsic nature, and they won’t find themselves instinctively expecting the repetition of what they have observed in the past. Nature will seem to them to consist of individual facts that point to nothing beyond themselves. They will not believe in general statements based on an incomplete set of particular statements. They will perform no inductive inferences.

If this is right, then the traditional model of our reasoning about the future and the unobserved must be wrong. That model has it that we form our general beliefs by observing particular cases and then extrapolating—from the particular to the general, from some to all. Critics of induction have doubted that such an inference can be regarded as valid, and it would seem that our imaginary people would agree: they have no tendency to generalize beyond the particular. There is nothing in the particular, considered by itself, that could warrant such an inference. Insofar as any generalization is possible, it must be grounded in something like the concept of natural power or a brute tendency to form expectations. Individual instances are impotent to produce knowledge that goes beyond them without non-trivial supplementation. Remove the supplementation and the inference grinds to a halt. So it cannot be that induction rests upon an inference from some to all.

Now consider beings with the following unusual psychology: they have no memory of the past but they do have a faculty of precognition.  [1] They can tell what will happen but they have no knowledge of what hashappened. Suppose they wish to fill this gap in their knowledge by making inferences to the past from the future–for example, they want to know whether the sun rose in the past. They consult their precognitive faculty and ascertain that the sun always rises in the future; then they extrapolate backwards to infer that it rose in the past. Thus they reason from the premise, “The sun will rise” to the conclusion, “The sun rose”. Skeptics will point out that the latter doesn’t follow from the former—the sun might not have risen in the past despite rising in the future. Many things will be true in the future that were not true in the past, so how can we infer the past from the future? These imaginary beings are just like us from an evidential point of view; they merely reverse the temporal direction of our inductive inferences. They proceed from knowledge of particular cases to generalizations about the unobserved, moving from the future to the past. So the problem of induction has nothing essentially to do with reasoning from the past to the future: it applies equally to reasoning from the future to the past. It is temporally symmetric and faculty-relative.

We can even stipulate that our imaginary beings lack the power of perception, so they have a problem knowing what is true at the present time. They can know the future by precognition, but they can’t know the present by observing it with their senses (or the past by remembering it). Wishing to remedy this lack they turn to the future for guidance: they infer that now such and such facts obtain because in the future they will obtain—for instance, objects presently fall to earth and bread presently nourishes. They can’t know these things by perceiving them, but they can at least infer them by working backwards from the future. It seems that they are no worse off (and no better off) from an evidential point of view than we are: they perceive the future and use it to infer the past and present, while we perceive the present and remember the past in order to infer the future. In both cases there is a leap from the known to the unknown of essentially the same type—extrapolation from knowledge of particular facts to beliefs about facts extending beyond that knowledge. Thus there can be a problem of induction with regard to the present: for how can the imaginary beings know about the present on the basis of their knowledge of the future? What counts as inferential depends on the cognitive faculties the knower happens to possess. The imaginary beings may harbor a Hume who torments them with the question of whether they know anything about the present, given that they have direct access only to the future (and similarly for the past).

If we humans had precognition, we would have no problem of induction with regard to the future: we would not need to base our beliefs about the future on our experience of the past, and so would not need to rely on concepts like natural power or fall back on brute inductive instinct. There would be no problem of principle about predicting the future. The problem of induction, as it exists for us, arises from a temporal asymmetry in human knowledge, but that asymmetry could be reversed in conceivable cases.

 

Colin McGinn

 

  [1] I won’t go into the question of whether precognition is logically possible, given the direction of causality. It seems to me hard to rule out on conceptual grounds (especially if we help ourselves to a bit of divine assistance), but it suffices that we can intelligibly raise the possibility and consider its philosophical consequences.

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Internal Behaviorism

                                                Internal Behaviorism

 

 

Goethe’s famous dictum, “In the beginning was the deed” is often invoked as a motto for behaviorism: if you want to understand the mind, you should look to overt behavior not to some supposed inner landscape. But that is not the only way the dictum can be interpreted, since not all deeds involve motions of the body—there are also mental deeds. There are intentional mental acts, such as remembering, imagining, and judging; these might be described as “mental behavior”—what the subject is doing mentally. This suggests the possibility of a distinctive new position in the metaphysics of mind—what I am calling “internal behaviorism”. It is not that I think this position is preferable to all others, or even that it is particularly plausible, but it is worth identifying it and exploring its contours. Think of this as a “research program”. So let’s examine its possible motivations and its strengths and weaknesses.

            The idea is that mental actions are ontologically primary in the analysis of mind. We have mental states, mental traits, mental faculties, and mental systems, but all these are to be understood in terms of the mental actions associated with them. Following classic philosophical behaviorism, we could formulate the doctrine by saying that these mental entities are to be analyzed as dispositions to produce mental actions. For instance, beliefs are dispositions to make judgments, memories are dispositions to remember, and personality traits are dispositions to choose. We need not assume that all mental behavior is fully intentional: we can allow for sub-intentional mental acts or even reflexive mental acts—just as with bodily behavior broadly construed (“responses”). We could even extend the notion of behavior to include mental events of all kinds: then the doctrine will be that all mental notions are to be analyzed by reference to mental events. We could accordingly maintain that an emotional state like fear or anger is a disposition to experience suitable affective events such as feelings of fear or anger. Everything mental is bound up with mental events, many of them actions, and the mind is best understood from that basis. States, traits, faculties, and systems are all entities whose nature is constituted by the kinds of mental actions or events associated with them—by the mental deeds to which they are tied. What the mind does is key to what the mind is.

            This kind of behaviorism might be part of a general metaphysical preference for events over other entities (substances, objects, properties) or it might be a doctrine specifically about the mind, holding that the mental is distinctively constituted by mental activity. Descartes viewed the mind as a mental substance imbued with mental attributes; on the behaviorist view (external or internal) it is better seen as a locus of action—a collection of animated events. Hitherto this metaphysical picture has been expressed in terms of bodily action, but that is not the only way to go: we can hold that the mind is essentially a site of mental activity—engaged not passive, flowing not fixed. There can be no mind where there is no mental behavior. What is an intention if not a disposition to form specific intentions to act? If I intend to become a good tennis player, I will form innumerable specific intentions to practice, study, and compete; if I didn’t I could not be said to have that intention. What reality could there be to the mind that is not manifested in the various activities of the mind? Aren’t mental actions and events the only things in the mind that can be introspected? When I know what I believe don’t I just know the episodic thoughts I am disposed to have? I can’t directly introspect my mental states, only the events that are associated with them. How can I know anything about my memories except by reference to the acts of remembering that manifest them? Introspection is knowledge of what my mind is doing.

            Internal behaviorism respects the active nature of mind while avoiding the problems afflicting external behaviorism. External behavior is neither necessary nor sufficient for having a mind (paralysis and robots), but surely mental behavior is necessary and sufficient for having the attributes of mind. How could we disconnect beliefs from dispositions to judge, emotions from dispositions to feel, or personality traits from dispositions to choose? To be mentally paralyzed is to lose one’s mind, and there cannot be a mindless robot endowed with mental activity (but no mental states, traits, faculties, or systems). We are analyzing one part of the mind by reference to another part of the mind, not trying to analyze the mind by moving outside the mental realm altogether. The mind does not reduce to muscular contractions, to be sure, but it might reduce to its own actions—as it were, mental contractions. Of course, internal behaviorism does not make the mind public in the way external behaviorism does; but that was a misguided and quixotic project. Indeed, we might well favor internal behaviorism precisely because it keeps the mind where it should be—resolutely private. The mind consists of inner behavior—hidden, directly known only to the subject, removed from the public world of bodies. The deed is basic, but it is a private deed.

            Once we have formulated this kind of inward-looking behaviorism we might venture into more sophisticated versions of the basic idea. Thus we might replace the idea of simple dispositions to mental behavior with something more like functionalism: a mental state is a functional state existing within a web of other mental states and connecting with mental actions and events. If I desire some chocolate and believe there is chocolate in the fridge, I will make the decision to go to the fridge; the belief and desire interlock and lead to the mental action of decision-making. Desires also function holistically in the production of choices, decisions, and intentions, so we will want to build that into our account of how desires relate to mental actions and events. The dispositions to mental behavior will be complex and interdependent; but analytic bedrock will consist of appropriate activities of mind. Thus the spirit of functionalism is maintained while its commitment to bodily behavior is dropped. The mind is a functional system, but the functions are defined over mental inputs and outputs—things like events of perception and actions of judging. We will have no problems of “absent qualia” or “inverted qualia” under such a conception, since the mental is part of the very analysis of the mental.  [1]

            There is really nothing oxymoronic about the phrase “internal behaviorism”, just certain dispensable prejudices. Mental acts are as real as physical acts—the realm of action extends into the mind: calculating, talking to oneself, imagining, problem solving, and so on. So there is nothing metaphysically problematic about trying to use mental actions to give a general account of the mind—reducing it all to mental activity. The view may be misguided, but it is not in principle ruled out by the very definition of “behavior”. No doubt classic behaviorists were motivated by anti-mentalist assumptions, but the core of the position is detachable from all that, namely that the mind is best understood in terms of activity. The mental deed is basic—mental doing precedes mental being. We should therefore add internal behaviorism to the list of logically available metaphysical theories of the mind.

 

Colin McGinn                 

 

  [1] We can either accept reductive internal behaviorism or eliminative internal behaviorism: we analyze everything mental in terms of dispositions to mental behavior or we simply deny that that there is anything to the mind except such behavior. The view suits an idealist attracted by the notion that mental being is a matter of deeds of some sort.

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Only Consciousness is Physical

                                         Only Consciousness is Physical

 

 

As formulated by Descartes and others, mechanism is the doctrine that the objects of sense (“material bodies”) are characterized by extension, solidity, and contact causation. Specifically, the causation involved does not require divine intervention (“occasionalism”) or a scholastic notion of the transfer of forms or Aristotelian teleology (“final causes”) or spooky action at a distance (Newton’s “occult” force of gravity operating across empty space). For mechanism causation works purely by impact and collision, as one moving object touches another and thereby imparts motion to it: extended solid objects come into contact with each other and thus interact causally. The causation is “mechanical”.

With mechanism so understood we can now define physicalism as the doctrine that everything in nature is subject to mechanism—in particular, the mind is subject to mechanism. Everything mental is extended, solid, and causally mechanical. The science of mechanics thus suffices to provide a complete description of reality. This doctrine stands opposed to traditional Aristotelian and scholastic doctrines, as well as doctrines that put God and agency at the center of nature. No occult powers, no spiritual forces, and no teleological processes—just clashing particles in the void. If it were to turn out that we had to recognize such non-mechincal things, then mechanism would be false for material bodies, and so physicalism would also be false.

            It is now generally accepted that mechanism as so understood is false of material bodies. There are questions about the extension and solidity components of the doctrine in the light of modern physics, but the causation component is the one that has come under the most serious attack–because of gravitational action at a distance, electromagnetic fields, and causation at the quantum level. To put it simply, causation does not in fact require actual contact between the interacting bodies (or their surfaces). The billiard ball model of the causal structure of the universe has been shown untenable. So the world of bodies has been shown to be non-mechanical and non-physical (in the sense defined). One reaction to this is that, since there is no other well-defined notion of physicalism than that supplied by mechanism, the doctrine of physicalism has been shown to be false. The only clear definition of “physicalism” has turned out to be empirically false, so the doctrine of physicalism has no formulation under which it is true. I accept that conclusion: physicalism is not true of the physical world, i.e. the objects of sense. My question is whether physicalism in the sense defined might yet be true of the mind: granted it is not true of the physical, might it still be true of the mental?

            The question may seem absurd or obviously answered in the negative. But not so fast: it is true that it is not easy to show that mental entities are extended and solid without making a prior commitment to a universal mechanism, but these concepts are arguably not essential to the mechanistic world-view. What if it had turned out (as some claim to be actually the case) that bodies are not definable in terms of extension and solidity—that the so-called physical world is not constituted by precisely bounded geometrical objects that are solid and impenetrable? What if it is fields of force all the way down, fuzzy and wispy, potentialities not hard nuggets of matter? Must we then give up mechanism? Not necessarily, because the causation might still conform to the mechanist’s picture: it might consist of things touching (possibly just fields) without any remote causation or teleological causation or transfer of forms. The causal relation might be fully mechanical, even though the ontology departs from the Cartesian paradigm. So we can accept that mental entities are not extended and solid and still ask whether mental causation is a species of contact causation. If so, the mind is causally mechanical; and that will be sufficient to establish a mechanistic view of how the mind works. Then we can say that the mind is physical in the sense that it works mechanically: all we need is mental causation by means of contact causation. It doesn’t work by divine intervention or teleological causation or spooky action at a distance. If that is so, then the mind, including consciousness, can be rightly characterized as “physical”, since that notion is to be understood in terms of the nature of the causation involved, i.e. whether the causation is mechanical.

            But now the tricky question is whether mental causes and effects make contact. If we accept that mental entities are not in space and have no boundary or surface, then it is indeed difficult to see how they can make contact in the way bodies make contact (or fail to given the facts of physics). Can the occupants of the mind toucheach other? But what is the significance of that notion in relation to ordinary physical causation? It doesn’t logically presuppose extension and solidity, or even location in three-dimensional space; what it connotes is the idea of direct unmediated connection—as opposed to final causes, action at a distance, or scholastic forms flitting from one object to another. It is the idea of immediate localized proximate efficient causation—a prior state of affairs directly bringing about a later state of affairs without any outside divine assistance or teleological targeting or crossing of spatial chasms. When Descartes and others spoke of “mechanical” causation that is what they meant to exclude—the conception of causation handed down from Aristotle and the scholastics. But there was no reason to resist that conception for mental causation, since no one had suggested that mental causation operated in such strange ways. Mental causation was clear and intelligible compared to the kinds of causation contemplated for material bodies. How could there be puzzling action at a distance if there is no distance in the mind to start with? How could anyone think that the motion of the mind arises from naturally given ends if the mind didn’t move?

            Mental causation operates by something analogous to physical contact between bodies; or perhaps we should say that we model the idea of physical contact on the kind of intimate connection that holds between items in the mind. When a visual experience causes me to make a judgment the causation is direct and unmediated—not acting across empty space or aided by God. It is transparent and intelligible. When a desire causes me to make a choice the connection is plain to see: the desire is tied explicably to the choice. If we think of the mind as a mental substance consisting of parts, then these immaterial parts are in “contact” with each other—they impinge on and influence each other. In particular, we have discovered nothing analogous to action at a distance in the mind—the causation is just old-fashioned proximate causation. So the mechanistic picture of causation is not violated by mental causation, despite the fact that mind and body are distinct. This means that even a Cartesian dualist can accept the mechanistic picture of mental causation—though he must reject mechanism for physical causation, given what we have empirically discovered. It is not as if Newton had also discovered action at a distance in the mind and hence was forced to postulate an occult brand of causation operating in the mind. Mental causation could therefore be conceived according to the mechanical model, suitably tweaked to fit mental ontology. We can even have a Cartesian dualism of substances combined with a view of mental causation that conforms to the mechanical model—as opposed to the causation that actually operates in the physical world. Thus mechanism applies to the mind but not to the body: for causation is “occult” in the latter case but not in the former.

            But if the only coherent notion of physicalism is tied to mechanism, then it turns out that physicalism is true of the mind but not the body! The mind is physical (i.e. operates by means of mechanical causation) while the body is not physical (i.e. does not operate by means of mechanical causation). The mind is more of a “machine” than the body. That is, the mind does not work by means of the kinds of unintelligible causation that appear to pervade the physical universe—in particular, gravitational and electromagnetic causation. Descartes’ mechanism of the physical world was ruined by the science of physics, beginning with Newton; but nothing in the science of psychology has ever upended common sense views of mental causation as proximate efficient causation. The core component of classical mechanism was its conception of causation (extension and solidity being optional), but that conception was empirically refuted for the physical world. However, in the case of the mind an essentially similar conception of causation has not been refuted by science, so mechanism holds for mental causation—the mind is machine-like in its mode of causal operation. The mind better fits Cartesian mechanism than the body does. The mind is therefore physical, according to the doctrine of physicalism as defined by reference to mechanical causation.  [1]

            Now it is not that I wish to advocate the metaphysical thesis that the mind is physical while the so-called physical world is not—that physicalism is true of consciousness but not of the brain (or the kidneys). My point is just that if we insist on defining a metaphysical doctrine of physicalism in these kinds of terms then that is the consequence we must accept. And it is not that some other definition of physicalism leads to less counterintuitive results, since it is doubtful that there is any other workable definition of physicalism.  The right lesson to draw is that the concept of physicalism is too contestable and up for grabs for such metaphysical doctrines to make much sense. Surely it is a reductio ad absurdum of this entire way of thinking that the traditional definitions lead to the conclusion that only consciousness is physical: not brains or hearts or planets or atoms, but thoughts or pains or perceptions. But that is the inevitable result if we persist in trying to apply these doctrines in the traditional style. Physics has made physicalism obsolete with regard to the physical world. We don’t want to find ourselves resurrecting it for the mind.  [2]

 

Col

  [1] Some have suggested eliminating the concept of causation altogether from physical science, given the demise of mechanism, but such a demand has not been made for psychology—we just don’t have the same reasons for disquiet over causation in the case of psychology. For instance, the problems for causation inherent in quantum theory have no counterpart for psychology. Compared to physics psychology is a causal oasis.

  [2] This is by now a familiar story; my point has been that classical physicalism (the well-defined kind) leads to the conclusion that only the mind is physical—not a happy result. We don’t want to end up saying that immaterial mind is physical while material body is not!

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Contradiction

 

 

Contradiction

 

 

Contradictions arise quite naturally in several areas of thought and it is not easy to resolve them.  [1] It is generally felt that contradictions are unacceptable for two reasons: (a) contradictions entail anything and (b) they violate the logical law of non-contradiction. But some have questioned these reasons for rejecting contradictions, developing what is called “para-consistent logic”. There are even those who stoutly maintain that contradictions can be true (as opposed to necessarily false). For example, in the case of the Liar paradox a sentence can be both true and false (not true); and an author might describe a fictional character in contradictory ways (knowingly or unknowingly) both of which must be accepted as true. The point I want to make is that even accepting that kind of view we can still insist on the universal applicability of the logical law of non-contradiction, properly understood.

            Suppose we allow that a proposition of the form “x is F and x is not F” is true. We are then saying that an object x has both the property of being F and the property of being not-F, so that these two properties don’t logically exclude each other (of course, traditional logicians deny this, holding that these properties do exclude each other). What we are clearly not saying is that x lacks one of these properties: we are saying that x has both of them. Suppose now that we say explicitly that x lacks one of the properties, say the property of being F: “x is F and xlacks the property of being F”. That surely is impossible: no object can both have a property and lack it—if the property is present, it is necessarily not absent. We could call this law “the Law of Non-Exclusion”: if an object has a property, that fact excludes lacking that property. I don’t think there are any areas in which we are forced, or even tempted, to accept any exception to that law. In the case of the Liar paradox, accepting the contradiction as true is a matter of accepting that a proposition can be both true and false—it is not a matter of accepting that a proposition can be true and yet lacks the property of being true (similarly for the property of being false or not true). In other words, saying that an object is not F is not the same as saying that it lacks the property of being F, since the latter logically excludes being F while the former does not (if we accept true contradictions).

            Suppose an author describes a character, Ned, as tall early in her novel but as not tall later in the novel, having forgotten her earlier description. We then seem entitled to say that Ned is both tall and not tall—at least one can sympathize with the temptation to say that. But this is not tantamount to saying that Ned both has and lacks the property of being tall: he has both, though they contradict each other. It would be quite wrong to say that Ned lacks the property of being tall because he is later described as not tall, since the author’s earlier description is sufficient to confer tallness on Ned (like her later description of Ned as not tall). That is, accepting such contradictions as true, as some recommend, is not the same as accepting that objects can have properties but also lack them: it is accepting that objects can actually have contradictory properties. If this is right, then accepting contradictions as true is not in violation of the correct formulation of the logical law of non-contradiction, since that law states that objects cannot lack properties that they have. To accept that objects can have contradictory properties is not the same as accepting that they can have properties and also lack them; on the contrary, it is accepting precisely that they have both properties. So we can accept contradictions without violating the law of non-contradiction, correctly understood, i.e. the law of non-exclusion. Or perhaps we should say that there are really two laws of non-contradiction, one of which has exceptions (if we choose to go that way) and one that does not. To accept that there can be true contradictory statements is not to accept that there can be states of affairs in which objects both have and lack the same properties.

We thus have some wiggle room when it comes to areas that easily generate contradictions: it becomes easier to accept the existence of true contradictions—for example, accepting that the Liar sentence is both true and false. This does not require us to give up on the law of non-exclusion, which is arguably what the law of non-contradiction was saying all along. The disturbance is nowhere near as great as would be occasioned by accepting that something can both have and lack a given property. However, there is no reason to contemplate that possibility stemming from any of the areas that generate contradictions, and it is surely logically ruled out. We are naturally led to entertain propositions of the form “x is F and x is not F”, but nothing requires us to contemplate the (alleged) possibility expressed by “x is F and x lacks the property of being F”. In the problematic cases these two propositions come apart.

            Contradictions don’t arise everywhere but only in special cases; maybe they could not arise everywhere. Contradictions are restricted in scope. This means that we need not tinker with the law of non-contradiction for the majority of cases, since there cannot be naturally occurring contradictions in these cases. It is only in certain special cases that we might contemplate accepting true contradictions: but even here we need not contemplate abandoning a universal law of logic, namely the Law of Non-Exclusion. We can tolerate contradictions without tolerating objects simultaneously having and lacking properties.  So the para-consistent logician need not be quiteas radical as he appears to be.  

 

  [1] I won’t discuss any of these areas in detail, but I have in mind not only the semantic and set-theoretic paradoxes but also the following: contradictions arising in fiction, contradictions arising through vague concepts, and Kripke’s argument that our practices of belief ascription license contradictory ascriptions of belief. In all these cases there are apparently cogent reasons to endorse contradictions—reasons to accept contradictions as true. My question is how drastically revisionary it would be to succumb to those reasons.

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Bivalence and States of Affairs

                                    Bivalence and States of Affairs

 

 

It is sometimes maintained that bivalence fails for certain kinds of sentences or propositions. What I will argue is that if bivalence holds for states of affairs it holds for sentences and propositions. Moreover, it is plausible that bivalence does hold for states of affairs, so we can conclude that it also holds for sentences and propositions.

            By “state of affairs” I mean “possible condition of objects”, i.e. ways objects might be. States of affairs can be said to obtain or not to obtain: if they obtain they are called facts, while if they fail to obtain they are merely possible (sometimes impossible). For instance, there is the state of affairs of my cup having coffee in it, which happens to be actualized (a fact). Now I want to say that any such state of affairs either obtains or does not obtain—there is no other alternative. States of affairs are bivalent. There may be truth-value gaps for statements but there are no obtainment-value gaps for states of affairs. Either coffee is in the cup or it’s not in the cup. This says nothing about propositions or sentences; it is purely a point about how the world can be. Reality either is a certain way or it isn’t. There may be exceptions, such as vagueness and borderline cases, but generally speaking states of affairs either obtain or don’t. What I want to argue is that in cases in which states of affairs are bivalent propositions about them must be bivalent too. The only way for bivalence to fail for propositions is for it to fail for states of affairs.

            The argument is simple: propositions are representations of states of affairs and their truth-value depends completely on whether the represented state of affairs obtains or not. If the state of affairs obtains the proposition is true, while if it does not obtain the proposition is false—and the state of affairs either obtains or it doesn’t (bivalence). This is intended to rule out a certain kind of interpretation of sentences about non-existent things, such as “The king of France is bald”: we cannot say that this sentence expresses a proposition that is neither true nor false. For every proposition represents a state of affairs that either obtains or does not—so the question must be whether the state of affairs represented by this sentence obtains or not. According to Russell’s theory, it does not obtain, so the proposition is false. According to Strawson’s theory, we cannot say whether the state of affairs obtains or not, because it lacks a constituent object to instantiate properties or fail to instantiate them. But we should not characterize this as a case of a proposition that is neither true nor false, since every proposition must represent a state of affairs subject to bivalence. And we need not speak that way: we can say instead that the sentence simply fails to express a proposition, since it depicts no determinate state of affairs. Then we can indeed conclude that the sentence suffers from truth-value gaps, since it expresses no proposition—and hence no proposition that is neither true nor false.  [1] The same would be true of “Vulcan was hit by lightning”: since there is no such planet, there is no such possible state of affairs, and hence nothing to make true the proposition that Vulcan was struck by lightning. The right thing to say is that there is no state of affairs here and hence there is no proposition representing a state of affairs—on pain of allowing for propositions that represent no state of affairs. Propositions and states of affairs go hand in hand: there is no sense in the idea of a proposition that does not represent the world as being a certain way, i.e. certain objects having certain properties. So bivalence for states of affairs carries over to bivalence for propositions (but not sentences, i.e. meaningful strings of words).

            Knowledge of states of affairs is another matter entirely: it is not true that every state of affairs is either known to obtain or known not to obtain, since we may be ignorant about reality. But propositions don’t represent (stand for) our knowledge of reality or its lack; they represent reality. Therefore propositions are bivalent, because reality is. If bivalence fails for a proposition, it must always be because it fails for reality; it cannot fail for a proposition yet hold for the state of affairs the proposition represents. Propositions stand for states of affairs, and they are true or false according to whether the state of affairs obtains or not. Given that states of affairs either obtain or don’t obtain, propositions must either be true or false—never neither.  [2]

 

  [1] Anything that fails to express a proposition will trivially suffer from truth-value gaps, i.e. be neither true nor false—for example, my left shoe or a nonsense sentence.

  [2] If we define logical laws over states of affairs not sentences, as I think we should, then bivalence will be a logical law even if some sentences exhibit truth-value gaps.

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Difference and Necessity

 

 

 

Difference and Necessity

 

 

Essentialists have found in identity a shining example of their creed. Any object is necessarily identical to itself—how could that not be so? It has even been thought that the necessity of identity can be proved from Leibniz’ Law: given that a is necessarily identical to a and that a is identical to b, it follows that b is also necessarily identical to a. But far less attention has been paid to the modality of difference: if a and b are different objects, is that a necessary fact or a contingent fact? If objects are distinct in the actual world, are they distinct in every possible world? Given that I am actually distinct from Saul Kripke, are there any worlds in which we are identical? Is there any world at which the statement “Colin McGinn is identical to Saul Kripke” is true? We can clearly lack certain of our actual properties in a possible world—neither of us are philosophers in some possible world–but could we lack the property of being numerically distinct? Are there worlds in which London is identical to Paris or the moon is identical to the sun? Could twins be numerically identical in a possible world?   

            The answer is intuitively obvious: none of these things is possible. If objects are different, they are necessarily different—different in all worlds in which they exist. If a is different from b, this is part of a’s essence—it is essentially different from b. Thus objects have an enormous number of difference essences, as many as there are objects from which they are distinct. They only have one identity essence, viz. identity to themselves, but they have hugely many difference essences, according to all the objects in the universe. In fact, they have infinitely many difference essences, given the infinity of numbers or points in space: I am different from the number two, say, in every possible world, and so for any number. These essences come cheap and plentiful. Furthermore, they are a distinct species of essence, not to be assimilated to the other kinds—origin, composition, etc. Nor are they derivable from the necessity of identity; they cannot be proved from Leibniz’ Law, for one thing. The difference of a given thing from everything else is essential to what it is, as a primitive modal fact. No amount of merging or fusion can make two actually distinct things into the same thing. For instance, you might think two rivers that flow side by side could be one river in a world in which the dry land separating them is removed; but such a world is really one in which a new river exists, not a world that contains the old two rivers joined in a single river. Those actual rivers don’t exist in this possible world; we have fused two rivers into a broader river and eliminated the actual rivers. Physical merging or joining is not two things existing as one, for those things will no longer exist—any more than fission is one object existing as two, and hence not being self-identical. There are no worlds in which McGinn and Kripke both exist and yet are one person—though there is a world in which an individual has characteristics belonging to each of us.

            That is all at the level of metaphysical possibility—what could really be. I have said nothing yet about epistemic possibility, and here matters assume a different shape. For it is an epistemic possibility that McGinn and Kripke are the same individual: it might turn out that we are identical—some very elaborate trick has been performed. To take a simpler example, suppose I am dating a woman I believe to be an only child but in fact she has an identical twin. I have been seeing both twins but don’t realize it: I have mistakenly believed of different women that they are one woman. Isn’t it possible that this is true of a great many people I know? I am always assuming identity from one meeting to the next, but in fact there is a plurality—different people where I thought there was one person. We can conjure ample grounds for a skeptical argument here. So it is not an epistemic necessity that what I take to be one individual is really one individual—it might turn out that I know many more people than I realize. Just as you can mistakenly suppose that what is in fact a single object is two, as in a classic Frege case, so you can mistakenly suppose that what are in fact two objects are a single object. Judgments of identity and difference are fallible. But none of this has anything to do with questions of metaphysical necessity: just because one object can be mistaken for two, or two objects mistaken for one, has no bearing on whether identity and difference are metaphysically necessary relations. We should not confuse metaphysical and epistemic questions. How things might turn out is a quite different question from how things could be. It might turn out that there are many things where you thought there was one, or that there is one thing where you thought there were many, but these possibilities don’t show that one thing could be many things or many things one thing.

            Frege used identity statements to prove that distinct senses can correspond to the same reference, since this is what explains someone’s inability to know the identity a priori. But an exactly parallel argument leads to the conclusion that there can be many references corresponding to a single sense, namely that a person can think he is referring to one object when he is really referring to two. If I call the woman I am dating “Joan” in the morning and “Joanie” in the evening (she always seems more fun-loving in the evening), I will subscribe to the truth of “Joan is Joanie”, even regarding it as analytic. But given that I am seeing twins and don’t know it, we have to say that I really have two references, while meaning the same by the name. The twins are perceptually presented to me in the same way and I intentionally use the names “Joan” and “Joanie” as synonyms, but I refer to different individuals when I use the name in relation to the women in question. This is a case of sameness of sense combined with difference of reference. To me the statement “Joan is Joanie” is analytic, but the context of use generates distinct references.

            The same points apply to natural kinds: people can fail to realize identities and fail to realize differences. You can fail to realize that water is identical to H2O and you can fail to realize that gold is different from copper (you think they are the same metal). Nevertheless, it is part of the essence of water to be H2O and part of the essence of gold to be different from copper. There are no worlds where water is identical to some other chemical compound and no worlds where gold and copper are the same metal (though one metal might be called both “gold” and “copper” in a possible world). If pain is identical to C-fiber firing in this world, then it must be so in all worlds; and if sensations of red and sensations of green are different in this world, then they must be different in all worlds. In order to create pain all God had to do was create C-fiber firing (according to the identity theory); and in order to create gold and copper God must perform two acts of creation—he can’t skip one of these creative acts and more economically create both metals in the form of a single metal. Different things can never be other than different, and identical things can never be other than identical. Hesperus is Phosphorus in every world and Venus is not Mars in every world—despite the fact that both these propositions are not known a priori. Modality behaves in the same way for both identity and difference: the essentialist can also find in difference a shining example of his creed. We find necessity not just in the relation a thing has to itself and to no other thing but also in the relation a thing has to other things and not to itself.     

 

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Psychic Structures

                                                Psychic Structures

 

 

It is interesting to read a book like Chomsky’s Syntactic Structures while thinking about thinking. To what extent does the structure of thought mirror the structure of language? Does thought have a grammar in the way languages have a grammar? Does the apparatus of linguistic theory carry over to thinking? Are there psychic structures parallel to syntactic structures?

            There are two sorts of reason for supposing that linguistic and psychic structure might march in parallel, both familiar. First, syntax has “psychological reality”: it is an aspect of linguistic competence—what the speaker or hearer must grasp and process. The grammar of a language is reflected in the understanding of that language. So a theory of grammar is a theory of a psychological capacity. Second, every sentence of a language like English expresses a potential thought: whatever you can say you can think (more or less). All of the resources of grammar are available to thought: it isn’t that thought sits in an impoverished corner of the mind while language flaunts its wealth elsewhere. For any sentence S of a language L there is a thought T such that speakers of L can have T. For example, a verb like take can assume many forms, e.g. takes, has taken, will take, has been taken, is being taken, etc (the example is from Syntactic Structures, p. 38). Sentences formed from these so-called auxiliary verbs correspond to a range of thoughts that a normal human thinker is capable of forming, such as the thought that the cat has been taken to the vet. This is not the same as the thought that the cat will be taken to the vet. Thus a normal thinker can have any thought expressed in the language of which he is a master. But this means that the thinker must have the conceptual resources to think such thoughts; and that includes structural resources—the mental analogue of grammar. There must be at least as much psychic structure as there is syntactic structure. Indeed, one might be forgiven for supposing these structures to be, at a deep level, identical.

            If this is so, there is a branch of psychology that mirrors linguistics. The same issues that arise about language can arise about thought. I will list a few of these. There is the question of what kind of grammar applies to both: is it a Markov process grammar, a phrase structure grammar, a transformational grammar, or something else? There is the question of how finite resources can generate an infinite number of strings (sentences or thoughts—strings of concepts). There is the question of acquisition: how is the capacity to have all these thoughts acquired by the child? How much is innate and how much learned? Are there psychic universals as there are linguistic universals? Is there a competence-performance distinction for thoughts? What is the abstract structure of a theory of thought? How much of the machinery of thought is unconscious? Are there rules of thought construction as there are rules of sentence construction? In both language and thought we have a capacity to combine elements into complex wholes, and the capacities are clearly related: so both raise the same kinds of explanatory questions that will receive similar kinds of answers. It is true that language takes the form of external sounds while thinking is inner and silent, but this is surely a superficial difference—the structure of both capacities is the same or similar.  [1]

            Thus Chomsky could have written a companion volume Psychic Structures and pursued many of the same questions at the level of thinking; indeed, we might suppose that he has already written that volume in writing Syntactic Structures. All we need to do is change some of the descriptive vocabulary and Chomsky will be interpretable as writing about thought not language. Now that cognitive science has liberated itself from behaviorist strictures we can directly pursue the question of psychic structure; and maybe that was our topic all along.  [2]

 

  [1] I am here assuming that the linguist is studying the grammar of spoken languages: then my point is that the psychologist has very similar questions about thought.

  [2] Invoking a language of thought will effect an immediate unification: the structure of thoughts will be a syntactic structure in the head. Then Chomsky could be taken to be writing about syntactic structures in the language of thought, as well as external public languages. But we need not presuppose such a theory in order to appreciate the theoretical parallels between language and thought.

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