Adverbs and Events
Adverbs and Events
Davidson had a clever idea with his theory of adverbs. It seemed both intuitive and ingenious, a genuine advance. It linked language and ontology, showed the power of standard logic, and provided a model for future work. We might compare it to Russell’s theory of descriptions: a clever and convincing account of logical form. It cemented Davidson’s reputation. I remember thinking in my callow youth: That’s impressive. Russell’s theory avoids ontological extravagance in the form of Meinongian objects; Davidson’s theory avoids ontological extravagance in the form of manners of having properties. We don’t have to say that “John ran quickly” requires the existence of manners of running in addition to John and the property of running. We just have quantification over events and predicates of events. For an adverbial sentence to be true is for an event (an action) to satisfy a predicate (instantiate a property). For John to run quickly is for an event of John’s running to have the property of being quick. Adverbs are predicates of events. That is the logical form of an action sentence. It is hard to find counterexamples and objections to this theory; it is simple and straightforward, and has the ring of truth. For someone to run quickly is for that person’s run to be quick. We can apply this to both types and tokens: the type of a cheetah running is quick, and so are the tokens of that type. How could this theory not be correct?
From an ontological point of view, the theory looks to be on solid ground. There are events, actions are events, and adverbs qualify events. They don’t qualify objects: you can’t say “This cat quickly”. Nor do they qualify properties or attributes: you can’t say “Tabby is a quickly cat”. You can say “Tabby runs quickly”. If there were no events, there would be no need for adverbs; and if there are events, we need a way to describe them—as slow or quick, careful or careless, at midnight or midday. Actions are events that are performed by agents, and adverbs describe how these events are performed—what kind of events they are (quick or slow). For any adverbial sentence, there is a corresponding adjectival sentence with the same truth conditions and meaning. What more could you ask of a theory? It is built on a sound metaphysics and it gets the semantics right. It doesn’t postulate queer ad hoc entities and it faces no convincing counterexamples in the form of sentences not analyzable this way. It would appear that our work is done.
But a puzzle remains: if the theory is that good, why do adverbs exist at all? Russell can respond to a similar question by appealing to considerations of syntactic simplicity—natural language abbreviates the longer analysis supplied by his theory for ease of use. But adverbs don’t do much abbreviating; they add syntactic complexity. Why not just say what you want to say in explicitly predicative terms? Why not say “John’s run was quick”? Do any natural languages do this, and if they do why don’t all? Why don’t we refer to events and predicate properties of them—as we do for particular objects and kinds of objects? It would simplify matters and give the child one less bit of grammar to learn. Natural language begins to look strangely structured, at odds with reality. Does it result from some kind of brain quirk out of sync with ontology? It seems logically (and ontologically) misleading. It seems pointlessly in error—suggesting such things as manners of property instantiation (“John instantiates running in a quick manner” or “John quickly-instantiates running”). Why not just say “John’s run was quick” or some such? I don’t know why—it is genuinely puzzling. We could call this the “puzzle of adverbs”—why don’t they wear their semantics on their sleeve? Why did it take ingenuity to come up with Davidson’s theory? It didn’t take much ingenuity to come up with the predicate theory of adjectives, so why do adverbs present a hurdle to overcome? Why did Davidson have to be clever in order to come up with his theory? Why does it seem, if only momentarily, that it might not be correct? It’s enough to make you think you might have missed something. It seems inarguably true and yet not obviously (superficially) true. The possibility of a counterexample seems ever-present. As I say, puzzling.[1]
[1] I don’t believe Davidson ever addressed this problem (or anyone else). How can a semantic theory be both clearly true and yet not apparently true? Russell’s theory is not clearly true and has been seriously contested, but Davidson’s has the look of a truism—an apparently false one.
