Footnote to “Naming and Contingency”

[1] But as soon as he created the predicate “bachelor” (along with its usual meaning) he was up to his neck in analytic necessities. God made names for the convenience of Adam and Eve (they were somewhat lacking in the omniscience department—don’t ask me why), but he had no intention of endowing them with semantic entailments. Put differently, names don’t come with the innate language faculty, unlike descriptions and demonstratives; they are an acquired appendage, pragmatically motivated.

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Naming and Contingency

 

 

Naming and Contingency

 

Let’s accept that names have no meaning, as a distinguished tradition contends.[1] They may have a reference or denotation but they have no sense or connotation. Names lack “descriptive content” and are not synonymous with definite descriptions. Predicates are alien to their semantic functioning. They belong to a different semantic category from descriptive phrases (or demonstratives). Then an elementary consequence follows: names cannot give rise to analytic truths. For analytic truth is truth in virtue of meaning, but names have no meaning: they lack the semantic dimension that generates analytic truth. Descriptions have this dimension, so they readily produce analytic necessities (“The bachelor standing in the corner is unmarried”), but names are devoid of the kind of content that could underlie such necessities. This seems confirmed by simple inspection: sentences of the form “ais F” are never analytically true (the point is often cited as an argument against description theories).  You can never generate an analytic truth from “Aristotle” by combining it with a predicate true of him, though this is easily done by combining descriptions of Aristotle with such a predicate.[2] A generalization thus appears indicated: names cannot give rise to analytic necessities—simply because they lack the property responsible for such necessities, viz. meaning (sense, connotation). Sentences containing names are always synthetic; analytic necessity never follows from the semantics of names. So names belong naturally with contingency not necessity. Descriptions, on the other hand, readily lend themselves to necessities in virtue of their intrinsic semantics, because they possess a content that generates necessities (they have definitions and constituent semantic structure).[3] A monograph entitled “Describing and Necessity” would be aptly so named, while “Naming and Necessity” would raise eyebrows if intended to suggest that names and necessity have anything much to do with each other. One might even prefer “Naming and Not Necessity”, because names are not capable of producing necessities in virtue of meaning, having none.

            However, plausible as all this may sound, there appears to be an obvious counterexample to the generalization stated, namely sentences of the form “a is a”. Aren’t such sentences analytic tautologies, as with “Hesperus is Hesperus”? Such a sentence is necessarily true, known a priori, and inferable from mere mastery of the name “Hesperus”. It has all the marks of analytic truth. But on reflection this verdict should strike us as paradoxical, since we have just seen that names lack the property necessary for conferring analytic necessity, viz. meaning. How can our sentence be true in virtue of the meaning of “Hesperus” if that word lacks meaning (the reference of the name can’t produce such necessary truths)? It therefore looks as if the alleged counterexample cannot be genuine, so something must be said to explain it away. That is not so hard to do. First, notice that “a is a” sentences are highly unusual and not part of ordinary language—no one ever says things like this (except in a philosophy class). Second, are they even about things like the planet Venus—if so, what are they saying about it? Third, it seems obvious that their purport is something like the following: “The thing called “Hesperus” is identical to the thing called “Hesperus”—which is a metalinguistic tautology containing two occurrences of a single definite description. That is not generally true of sentences containing “Hesperus” (unless we decide to make it our general theory of names), but in this case it is what the peculiar sentence is really saying. But then the analytic status of “Hesperus is Hesperus” traces to a hidden description, which of course has descriptive content: the sentence has the same logical form as, “The inventor of bifocals is the inventor of bifocals”. The name “Hesperus” is not here occurring as a used proper name but occurs quoted inside a definite description, so we don’t have a counterexample to our plausible generalization. This is simply a case of a logically misleading sentence that can be generated from a natural language (though it is not generally used as part of natural language). When names occur in propria persona they never give rise to analytic necessities (how could they given their lack of meaning?); but they can occur in a nonstandard way in certain types of sentence (as quoted expressions in a metalinguistic definite description). The case is not unlike the sentence “I’m John Smith” said by way of personal introduction: it clearly means something like “I’m called ‘John Smith’”, in which the name is mentioned not used. Strictly speaking, “Hesperus is Hesperus” is a non-sentence, a linguistic monster, but we easily hear it as a quick way to express the descriptive metalinguistic equivalent (compare “There are a lot of John Smiths in the world”).

            This point can be reinforced by asking whether names ever have synonyms. Analytic truths arise from synonyms, but where are the synonyms for ordinary proper names? They don’t even occur in dictionaries, let alone thesauruses: there is no list of synonyms for “John Smith”. Don’t say “John” is synonymous with “Johnny”: this is a matter of alternative versions of the same name not real synonymy of different names. Names are just tags or labels (as we are assuming) so they don’t have synonyms—words with the same meaning. Different words can express the same concept, but names don’t express any concept—so we don’t have the phenomenon of synonymy, i.e. different words for the same concept. Different versions of the same name are really pseudo synonyms, rather like abbreviations of common words in casual speech (e.g. pronouncing “living” without the “g” at the end). Nor would it be plausible to suggest that names are synonymous with themselves alone, so that “Hesperus is Hesperus” contains a synonymy: no word is ever synonymous with only itself, since synonymy requires identity of meaning and hence a meaning that can be otherwise expressed. Names don’t function like regular words (and arguably are not words at all), so they can’t do what genuinely meaningful words do, i.e. produce analytic truths. They look like words, but so do such non-words as “Ha” or “Boo” or “Um”. Names can be used by speakers to perform acts of reference, but that doesn’t qualify them as real semantic units—almost anything can be used to perform acts of reference (e.g. blinking).[4] In any case it would be wrong to try to assimilate names to other types of expression that participate in genuine synonymies.

            It might be said that names admittedly never generate analytic necessities, but don’t they occur in sentences expressing synthetic necessities so that it would be wrong to dissociate them altogether from the concept of necessity? What about “Aristotle is a man” and “Paris is a city” and “Hesperus is Phosphorous”? I would not wish to deny that such sentences express necessities (non-analytic ones), but it doesn’t follow from their existence that the names in them have anything to do with the necessities stated. On the contrary, the necessities in question (“de renecessities”) can be reported using sentences of different semantic types, including descriptive sentences. The necessity doesn’t arise from the name but from the fact: facts of natural kind and facts of identity. The necessity reported has nothing intrinsically to do with the names used to report it but simply arises from the nature of the fact reported. So a monograph on de re necessity might be misunderstood if entitled “Naming and Necessity”, suggesting perhaps that the two topics are connected. Names have nothing to do intrinsically with either analytic de dicto necessity or synthetic de re necessity. Descriptions, on the other hand, have to do with both, since they are the ground of analytic necessity and they express de re essential properties of objects. For someone wishing to point up a connection between types of reference and types of modality, the titles “Naming and Contingency” and “Describing and Necessity” would be the best choices. Of course, the word “and” by itself entails no claim of connection (though it may conversationally imply it), being usable simply to make a list; but if it is desired to suggest a deep connection between language and modality, then the titles just mentioned would be appropriate. In particular, names are indissolubly connected to contingency in that they are incapable of generating necessary truth, whether analytic or synthetic.[5] Necessity either comes from concepts or from the world, but names express no concepts and are not part of extra-linguistic reality. They are merely convenient labels devoid of descriptive content and not integral to de re necessities: they cannot function as necessity generators (unlike concepts and properties). It is as if names have never even heard of necessity and want nothing to do with it. When God created names he still had more work to do to bring necessity into the world.

[1] I defend this position in “Naming and Knowledge”.

[2] There are such things as descriptive names (oxymoronic as it sounds), since we can simply stipulate that a name is to abbreviate a description, and these will give rise to analytic truths. But they are far from being the general case (Mill could have accepted their logical possibility).

[3] Demonstratives also feature in analytic truths in virtue of an appended predicate, as in “That bachelor is unmarried”. 

[4] It can even be argued that names lack reference as a matter of their intrinsic character: it is speakers who refer by using name not names themselves. But in the case of descriptions the words themselves contribute to determining reference; it isn’t just the speaker’s act that confers reference. This is why the content of a description can conflict with the speaker’s intention, which is not the case with names. The reference of a name is a matter of speaker stipulation alone, but a description carries its own reference-fixing content. Name reference is essentially pragmatic while description reference works via semantic content, i.e. meaning. (These are thorny issues, but I take it the basic contrast is plain enough.)  

[5] Someone may object that rigid designation can lie behind necessary truth, so names are logically connected to necessity, as in the necessary truth of “Hesperus is Phosphorus”. Both names designate the same object in every possible world; therefore the identity statement is a necessary truth. The same is not true for definite descriptions, which are non-rigid designators. But this is confused: descriptions can be rigid designators and thus generate necessary identity statements; and not all statements containing names yield necessary truths, e.g. “Plato taught Aristotle”. It is the necessity of the identity relation that lies behind the necessity of “Hesperus is Phosphorus” not the occurrence of names in this statement.  And we would get the same result by substituting rigid descriptions into the sentence (“the planet composed of such a such a chunk of matter”). Names are not distinctive of necessarily true identity statements; still less do they produce such necessities (identity itself does). 

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Footnote to “Universals in Thought”

[1] The concepts of particular and universal are theoretical concepts introduced to perform an explanatory role. They are not found fully formed in our ordinary conceptual scheme. They should therefore be evaluated in terms of their theoretical utility, which may trump any feeling of metaphysical repugnance they evoke. It is notable that they pull in different directions–one towards the concrete, the other towards the abstract. This is why many philosophers have felt the need to choose between them rather than embrace them both. It is as if reality can’t make up its mind about what it prefers to be. Plato cleaved the world in two the better to explain its unity.

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Universals in Thought

 

 

Universals in Thought

 

We introduce the concept of the particular because we observe distinctness in the world. We introduce the concept of the universal because we observe similarity in the world. I see the cat as distinct from the computer and I conclude that particulars exist; if I didn’t I wouldn’t have much use for the concept of a particular. But I also see that several particulars are similar to each other and I conclude that there are respects of similarity, which I call universals; if I didn’t I wouldn’t have much use for the concept of a universal (suppose I live in a world without similarity). Thus the particular-universal distinction finds a foothold in our description of the perceptible world, from which it might fruitfully migrate: we use it in our general conception of the nature of objects.[1] We might say that it explains what we observe: we see distinctness because particulars exist, and we see similarities becauseuniversals exist. We describe the world as consisting of particular objects with shared properties (attributes, features, qualities, characteristics, forms). Evidently this is a sensible way to proceed, even if we subsequently disagree about what particulars and universals are (are particulars sets of universals or are universals sets of particulars?). But it is also true that we describe thoughts using the same distinction: they have a role in psychology as well as in ontology. For thoughts are about particulars and also about universals: the same duality pervades the mental world as the non-mental world. Why do we talk and think this way about thoughts? Why, in particular, do we think that thoughts have something in common analogous to universals—with the very same entity cropping up in different thoughts? It isn’t that thoughts instantiate universals as objects do (they are not red, square, etc.), so the rationale cannot be the same in both cases; we certainly don’t see that distinct thoughts share the same universal. So what is it that explains our readiness to postulate identity of universals across distinct thoughts? Hugely many different individual thoughts can concern the same universal—or so we suppose—so why do we insist that it is the same entity that crops up in each case? And why must this entity approximate to Plato’s conception of a universal? Why are universals considered an indispensable part of psychology?

            First, let us note the troubles of theories that try to do without them. Suppose we limit ourselves to particulars of various sorts—mental, linguistic, or even immaterial. Then we run up against the problem that we can’t capture the identity of the thought from one instance to another: I can’t think the same thing of two objects when I think that both are red, say. For the particulars in question will vary from instance to instance, according to time or person. If we try to circumvent this problem by appealing to types of particular, then we are back with universals. The general concept can’t be equated with a series of particular happenings; we need something in common between all the cases. We need, that is, the universal RED. Sameness of ascribed property means sameness of property ascribed.  We need something abstract and general to capture the commonality across thoughts. Nor will it help to bring in dispositions, since these vary over time depending on external circumstances and the thinker’s internal psychology. My disposition to use “red” in a certain way at time t need not be preserved to a later time at which I use the same word, despite the fact that I ascribe the same property at the later time. Dispositions to behave in certain ways don’t track meaning or attribute denoted, so they can’t play the role of universals as traditionally understood.[2] We need the robust identity provided by a traditional universal to explain how the same thing can be thought about different things, or about the same thing at different times. But why exactly do we need the same universal at any occurrence of the thought, so long as some universal is present? It can’t be a dated particular or a changing disposition, but why do we insist on invoking the very same universal whenever language appears to suggest it? Why must “red”, say, always be assigned the same universal? Couldn’t this be some sort of oversight or result of laziness? Why don’t we follow the example of “bank” and assign different universals in different contexts? True, that would be contrary to common sense, but it would be nice to know if the usual practice has anything further to recommend it. Why are we so wedded to the idea of universal invariance as between different thoughts and sentences? Why not a more anarchic approach?

            The answer is that logical reasoning requires it. Consider the classic example: All men are mortal; Socrates is a man; therefore Socrates is mortal. We have all been taught that for an argument to be valid there must be no equivocation in the premises and the conclusion. Thus the name “Socrates” must have the same meaning in the conclusion as it has in the second premise, i.e. it must designate the same particular. But the same is true of the predicates, and this requires that “mortal” must have the same meaning in the conclusion that it has in the first premise. That in turn requires that the same universal be assigned to it not some distinct universal (e.g. being vegetarian). So validity depends on constancy of universals through premises and conclusion. We can bring this out be rephrasing the argument using nominative forms: Anything that has humanity has mortality; Socrates has humanity; therefore Socrates has mortality. What we call a universal is just whatever is needed to render this argument valid, which it clearly is: it must not vary between premises and conclusion, as associated particulars and dispositions will. Thoughts occur in trains of logical reasoning and we need entities that will respect the prohibition on equivocation. Thus universals come into the psychological picture; they don’t just belong to the non-psychological world. They have a kind of double life, being related both to similarity among particulars and to validity of argument: we need them in both domains. Again, what they are exactly remains to be determined, but we can’t do without them in some form if we want to make sense of object similarity and argument validity. Postulating them is not some sort of gratuitous mysticism or ontological indulgence; it is warranted by facts that need explaining—the existence of similarity and logical validity. There cannot be logic without something like Plato’s universals, i.e. something constant across particular sentences or thoughts. This means that general concepts cannot be characterized without reference to universals. When we employ concepts we re-apply the same universal over time, which is what happens in a sequence of thoughts that form a logical argument. Token thoughts therefore share universals as particulars share universals—the former by means of intentionality, the latter by means of instantiation.

[1] The word “universal” is not ideal, entrenched as it is, since so-called universals are not universal—not all things have them. Not all things are red or square or even or good, only some are; so what are called universals are really partials, parochials. But there is no natural term that conveys the idea accurately: the closest I can find would be “shareables”, but that is not a felicitous expression. So we may as well stick to “universals” noting that the things in question are precisely not universally distributed. Notice too that the term “particular” is also not particularly descriptive and must be used in a technical sense: how “particular” is a grain of sand? These are both technical terms (not that there is anything wrong with that).

[2] I am here adverting to the kind of argument against dispositions voiced by Kripke in Wittgenstein on Rules and Private Language.

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Big Mystery: Space and Time

 

Big Mystery: Space and Time

 

What is the most fundamental mystery in the universe? Mind and matter is big, but space and time might be bigger. Each individually is a mystery, as has long been recognized, but there is also the mystery of their connection. How are space and time connected? Are they connected? It might be held that they are separate realities, merely existing alongside each other (“alongside” in what sense?), different in nature, only contingently connected. You could have one without the other: in some possible worlds there is space without time and in others time without space. Why should space require time in order to exist, or time require space? Aren’t they like chalk and cheese or electricity and gravity—distinct existences (to use Hume’s phrase)? Space has three dimensions (possibly more), time has just one; space is extended, time is not; space is static, time flows. When God created space he hadn’t even thought about creating time, and he could have created time without creating space. So it seems: we have such “intuitions of contingency” (compare mind and body). I open my eyes and see space, but I don’t see time (perhaps I feel it in myself); I experience the passage of time (memory, expectation), but I don’t experience the passage of space; I can get lost in space, but can I get lost in time? We apprehend space and time quite differently, and this seems grounded in metaphysical differences: so isn’t there a fundamental dualism here? Not a dualism of the material and the immaterial, but a dualism of the spatial and the temporal: the essence of space is extension (trivially), while the essence of time is continuation (the onward march). We are dealing with two sorts of “substance”: spatial substance and temporal substance (we could also say “stuff” or “quiddity”). It would be crazy to try to reduce one to the other: to claim that space reduces to time or time reduces to space. Such a view would be flagrantly eliminative, false to the facts. So space-time dualism seems the indicated position: non-identity, non-supervenience, non-reducibility. We should be “Cartesians” about space and time.

            But this position faces nagging questions (just like mind-body Cartesian dualism). Are space without time and time without space really conceivable? Might there not be “illusions of contingency” here? Is it an accident that both are infinite (infinitely extended and infinitely divisible)? And don’t the two “interact” in certain ways? Material objects exist in both space and time, having both location and history. They could hardly exist in one but not the other: there couldn’t be objects in space that have no history (what kinds of objects would these be?) or objects in time that have no location (where would such objects be?). Material objects straddle space and time, having a foot in both camps. Isn’t causation essentially spatiotemporal? Causation requires contiguity in space and time (or spatial separation in the case of action-at-a-distance). And motion is defined in terms of space and time: how much space is traversed in how much time. These are points of “interaction” between space and time, analogous to perception and action in the case of mind and body. Space and time seem designed for material objects, their sine qua non; so it isn’t as if they never recognize each other’s existence. They cooperate in various ways—as when an organism is born in a certain place and then lives a life over a certain period of time. We also measure space and time using the same kinds of measuring device, viz. physical objects (rods, clocks). Don’t physicists speak of “space-time” and treat both as basically physical? Space is treated as constituted by relations between material objects, and time is regarded as equivalent to periodic processes such as rotations, orbits, and oscillations. This may be found unduly verificationist, but doesn’t it indicate a degree of affinity, commonality? The idea of space without time or time without space will strike physicists as pure mythology, not consistent with Relativity Theory (their touchstone of truth). All in all it appears that space and time can’t be quite as separate as our imaginations may suggest; and yet reducing one to the other seems preposterous. A double-aspect theory suggests itself, obscure as that may be (space and time as two sides of the same coin). The situation resembles the usual dialectic surrounding mind and body, with the same array of (unattractive) options.

            We seem headed toward a mysterian position: space and time are intimately connected, necessarily so, but the connection is opaque to us, really opaque. The spatiotemporal “link” is not given to us; there is an “explanatory gap”; and we suffer from “cognitive closure” about the space-time nexus. This may arise from deep ignorance about what space and time are: we just don’t have penetrating knowledge about the nature of these things. Our conception of space is just a patchwork of superficial sensory representations combined with some mathematical artifice; our conception of time is conditioned by the practical concerns of life plus some rudimentary methods of calculation (calculus, for instance). It’s all maps and clocks, basically. We just don’t know much about the real objective deep nature of space and time, so we flounder in our understanding of how the two relate. Some may resort to the analogue of panpsychism: maybe there are little bits of time in all parts of space, or specks of space locked inside all instants. Others may boldly go eliminative (that seems to happen a lot with time). Dualism seems like the commonsense position, but commonsense is often limited when it comes to big cosmological questions (animal minds like ours are not cut out for cosmology given that food and shelter are our paramount concerns). Thus it may be that the nature of space and time lies largely concealed from us, generating misleading intuitions of contingency and impressions of ontological distinctness. Could there be some deeper reality of which space and time are merely aspects? Is this reality knowable by us? In the case of the mind-body relation we do have some relevant knowledge: we know that the brain is vital, that minds evolve and change with bodies, that there are causal relations between the two (often quite specific and intricate). But we have difficulty making sense of this knowledge, creating a viable theoretical edifice out of it. In the case of the space-time relation, however, we don’t even have even this primitive level of knowledge: all we know is that space and time come together in material objects (“the bus was going 30 miles an hour”). We don’t have systematic correlations between space and time, or causal relations, or an analogue of the brain (which at least gives us somewhere to look). We just have broad theoretical reasons for thinking that space and time must have some sort of underlying connection–it can’t be just an accident that they exist together. This is why I say that the mystery of space and time may be bigger than the mystery of mind and body: space and time are bigger in themselves, of course, and we draw an even bigger blank when contemplating their ultimate relationship. They must be connected, yet they seem radically unconnected. Thus we feel queasy when asked to consider their metaphysical separation (as in those alleged possible worlds that have one but not the other), but we are compelled to admit that we have no account of their necessary connection. Perhaps we are convinced that both are necessarily connected to matter (no space without material objects and no time without concrete events), but we hesitate over the question of radical ontological separation. For in virtue of what are the two necessarily connected, and how can they be so connected if they are what they seem? Time is one thing, space is another—how do the two manage to meet in the middle? Did God just slap them together or did he engineer an intelligible interlocking machine? Is the cosmos ultimately made of SPIME? Space stretches out and time ticks by—what have these facts go to do with each other? What is the meaning of their coexistence? Why must a universe be made like that? These are Big Mysteries, even bigger than the “world-knot” of the mind-body problem; we could call them the “cosmic-maze”. We are locked in the maze of space and time trying to find our way out, as we have both a mind and a body and struggle to untangle the conceptual knot they present. We can’t solve the maze and we can’t untie the knot—hence the mystery. But in both cases we can be sure there is a solution out there, even if we can’t produce it ourselves. Space and time fit snugly together somehow, as mind and body also do. We just have a boatload of trouble (possibly terminal) figuring out how the connection works. When I think of space my mind naturally turns to time, and when I think of time my mind naturally turns to space; and I have faith that space and time echo my thoughts in their own way. It’s just that I’m not privy to the way they join together. I have a vague feeling that time infuses space, peps it up, like alcohol in wine; and a feeling that space gives substance to time, beefs it up, like yeast in bread. But I have to confess that I have no idea what I am talking about when I say such things. I just feel that the two belong together in creating a fuller, more complete, world—that they are sadly lacking without each other. Each fills out what would otherwise be intolerably etiolated, hardly meriting the name “reality” at all. But maybe that’s because I would not exist but for their mysterious union: for I know myself to be a creature of both space and time. (Here philosophy makes contact with poetry, to which it is actually quite close, despite the appearances presented by your average philosophy department). If space and time were not connected, the universe would be genuinely meaningless—just static emptiness and transitory futility. Space would have no history and time no point (is there anything more desolate than the idea of time without even space to play with?). Space and time need to mesh if anything is to mean anything.[1]                        

 

[1] Mathematical existence, conceived Platonically, is absent space and time, and perhaps there is a possible world limited to such existence; but it would be a bleak and arid world, despite Plato’s fondness for it. Numbers can’t even move (or be at rest)! What there can’t be is a possible world containing only time or only space—such a world is a mere chimera, though suggested by the appearances (or some of them). Space and time necessarily come as a package deal.

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Footnote to “Empiricism and Semantic Knowledge”

The same point applies to our knowledge of propositional content: we don’t have impressions of the content of belief (even if we have impressions of the belief attitude itself). Our senses are not geared to propositions. Thus our knowledge of folk psychology is not explicable in classic empiricist style.

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Empiricism and Semantic Knowledge

 

 

Empiricism and Semantic Knowledge

 

Empiricism tells us that all knowledge worthy of the name derives from the senses. In Hume’s formulation, every idea has its origin in an impression, such as an impression of red. This is a psychological theory to which empirical evidence is relevant (what if we came across a whole batch of ideas that exist without benefit any prior sensory impression?). It is not intended as a logical or conceptual truth: there is nothing in the concept of an idea that entails that ideas must derive from impressions. That is why Hume conducts a survey of ideas to determine whether his general principle is correct. Notoriously, he runs into apparent counterexamples: not only the missing shade of blue, but also ideas of causation, the self, space and time, persisting bodies, and number. But he never (so far as I know) faces up to the case of semantic knowledge—what he would call ideas of meaning. We clearly have such knowledge: we know what the words of our native language mean and we can learn the meanings of words used by foreigners. Meanings are objects of cognition: we can think about them, ascribe them to marks and sounds, reason concerning them, have arguments over them. We know them as well as we know colors and shapes (the empiricist’s favorite examples). I know that “snow is white” means that snow is white—does anyone contest that? But how do I have such semantic knowledge—do I have it by means of sensory impressions of meaning? I hope the answer to that is a resounding No: when I hear someone speak and know his meaning I have no sense impression of meaning (I do have impressions of the sounds he makes). If I did, I could understand people speaking a foreign language without laboriously learning it—I could just sense what they mean. It would be like seeing a new combination of colors or hearing a new series of sounds—the senses would have it covered. There is thus no such thing as an impression of meaning in the sense intended by empiricists. This is as true for one’s own meaning as much as it is for other people’s meaning: I don’t have an impression of what “red” means to me. There are no sense impressions of senses, my own or other people’s. I don’t have sensations of meaning. I know about these things, but not because I sense them with my senses. If “impression” means “sense impression”, and these are limited to what the five senses convey, then we have no impressions of meaning. No child embarking on the business of learning language is ever confronted by an impression of meaning from which he or she derives ideas of meaning. Nor has anyone ever suggested such a thing—because it is obviously mistaken. So empiricism is false for the acquisition of semantic knowledge. Meaning belongs with those other ideas that resist the empiricist dogma: causation, the self, persisting bodies, etc. But in the case of meaning it is even harder to dispute whether the ideas in question are really possessed (do we really have an idea of the self?): we indisputably do have semantic knowledge, semantic concepts, and semantic thoughts—but without antecedent semantic impressions to ground them.

            You might try claiming that our knowledge of meaning is theoretical: we infer meaning from other types of impression. It is hard to see how this will go but a suggestion that has found some traction is ostension: we have impressions of pointing. The index finger extends in a perceptible dog-containing environment as “dog” is intoned, and an observer can have an impression of this performance—you see dog-oriented pointing going on and infer the meaning of “dog”. There is no need for me to critique this theory, given the obloquy it has been forced to endure, but I will say that an impression of pointing (the stiffened index finger in line with an object) is hardly sufficient to generate an idea of the meaning intended. The impression is far removed from the semantic information it is supposed to impart; you may as well say the expression on the pointer’s face is the basis of the meaning he intends. Many beings (e.g. dogs) could be witness to such a performance and yet have no knowledge of the meaning of “dog” as a result of it. As the native extends his finger while uttering “gavagai”, the field linguist is still in doubt about what that word means. But even if knowledge of meaning could be gained from such impressions, the fact remains that meanings themselves are not perceptible. The first-person knowledge the linguist has of her own meanings is not impression-based either. Moreover, there is a strong feeling that meanings could not give rise to impressions: meanings are not the kind of thing that produces impressions—like numbers (and unlike molecules). It is a necessary truth that meanings are imperceptible. In any case our actual knowledge of them is not impression-based, i.e. acquired by means of direct observation of their nature (by “acquaintance”). Rather, ideas of meaning are brought to perceived utterances, not derived from such utterances. Where these ideas do come from is not so clear: they could be innate, or they could be created by the developing child in some way. They could also be a mixture of the two, as much of our knowledge undoubtedly is. But what an idea of meaning can’t be is a “faint copy” of an antecedent impression, or be “abstracted” from an impression of meaning. There are no impressions of meaning that could form the basis of our knowledge of meaning in the manner envisaged by the empiricists. Meanings themselves are right there before us, so to speak, but they don’t show up in consciousness as Humean impressions.[1]

            Accordingly, knowledge of analytic truth can’t be impression-based: you don’t have an impression of the meaning of “bachelor” and an impression of the meaning of “unmarried male” and notice that these impressions are identical. Yet you have genuine knowledge here, just not empirical knowledge. If it were based on semantic impressions, it would be empirical: but as it isn’t, it ain’t (as Lewis Carroll once said). So knowledge of meaning is a powerful counterexample to empiricist epistemology, yet seldom if ever cited in this connection. And if the correct theory of it is that such knowledge is either innate or created (or a combination of the two), then this theory might well be the one to adopt for other types of knowledge too, such as knowledge of color and shape. Impressions of red might merely elicit our innate concept of red, rather than being the basis on which we acquire that concept ab initio. At any rate, we don’t come to know meaning by having impressions of meaning fed into our minds.

[1] If they did, theory of meaning would be a lot simpler: we would have direct knowledge of the nature of meaning.

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Footnote to “Existentialism and Essentialism”

[1] There is also a genetic question: if the original state of existence is nature-free, how does it ever acquire a nature? Where do the properties come from? If two bare existences interact with each other, what makes them become clothed? Natures can’t come from Nothingness.

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