Footnote to “Is Knowledge True Justified Belief?”

[1] My ulterior purpose here is to defend traditional philosophical theorizing from misguided objections stemming from the impossibility of completing a classic conceptual analysis. Gettier didn’t show that the whole project of a priori analysis (we can still use that word) is pointless; rather, he showed (arguably) that a certain conception of analysis can’t be vindicated for the case of knowledge. This should not be interpreted as entailing pessimism about traditional a priori philosophy; it should be interpreted as showing that such philosophy is not committed to a certain very strong conception of what it must look like. We could say that “weak analysis” does not require “strong analysis”, though in another sense the weak kind can be perfectly strong. It seems to me that TJB is an excellent analysis of knowledge, requiring no further supplementation (or subtraction). I leave open the question of whether it is possible to give a strong analysis of the intuitive concept of knowledge (in fact I think it is by invoking the idea of non-accidental true belief: see my Truth By Analysis, chapter 3).

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Is Knowledge True Justified Belief?

 

 

Is Knowledge True Justified Belief?

 

Yes, despite the counterexamples. It is fair to say that before Gettier’s paper the TJB analysis of knowledge was the accepted theory. The theory was not regarded as a work in progress, as somehow incomplete, or vulnerable to counterexample. If not self-evidently correct, it was taken to be clearly and incontrovertibly correct. It is true there were some doubts about the necessity of the three conditions for knowledge, but not the sufficiency: nothing meeting those conditions could fail to be knowledge. That is why Gettier’s counterexamples came as a surprise, a shock, and a blow. If TJB doesn’t define knowledge, then what does! Some tried to retain the old analysis by claiming that the examples all involve defective justifications (and there was something odd about those alleged justifications), but most accepted that the counterexamples refuted the analysis. How could we have been so wrong—so confident and yet so misguided? Thus the hunt was on for a better theory, one immune to counterexample. But surely there is something funny going on here: is it possible that the pre-Gettier confidence was actually well placed and yet his counterexamples do show the conditions not to be logically sufficient? In what follows I will defend this position, which may seem not to exist in logical space. The key will be to distinguish between being a good theory and being a theory that provides necessary and sufficient conditions in every possible world: the latter is not required for the former. Or, to put it differently, a theory of what knowledge is isn’t the same as a logically watertight analysis of the concept of knowledge, i.e. the provision of a (complex) concept identical to the concept of knowledge. We can have a good theory (a true theory) of knowledge without it being immune to conceivable counterexamples concerning possible cases; and TJB is such a theory.

            The TJB theory tells us that knowledge is not the same as belief, which can be both false and irrational or unjustified. It distinguishes knowledge from mere opinion, because knowledge requires truth and a rational basis. It identifies the main components of knowledge, as they distinguish knowledge from belief (this can be useful when fighting sophists, say). It connects knowledge to the normative concepts of truth and justification, revealing what attempts at knowledge aspire to. These are important insights, adequate for most practical purposes, and they are recognizable by any normal person. By these criteria the TJB theory is a good theory. The existence of Gettier-type counterexamples does not defeat these insights (which go back to Plato). So what do they tell us? They tell us that in conceivable cases the conditions are not logically sufficient—there could be cases in which they are satisfied but the believer doesn’t know. Not that such cases are common, or even actually occur, or that they show that knowledge is not different from belief after all, but just that they exist in logical space: we can imagine such cases and our intuition tells us that they don’t qualify as knowledge. The question is why this matters: so what if the theory doesn’t cover every imaginable case? Was it ever intended to? Can’t it be a good theory and not cover all of logical space?  What if we said it was only meant to cover actual or typical or central cases of knowledge? If we had said that knowledge is just belief, we would face the objection that this fails to cover even the most common and central cases; but Gettier cases are admittedly uncommon and not central, involving bizarre kinds of justification. A good theory needs to get the basic elements of knowledge right (truth and justification), but does it need to cover all conceivable cases, no matter how contrived or irrelevant to daily life? Can’t it be more like an empirical scientific theory, which doesn’t purport to cover all of logical space?

            Before pursuing this line of thought let’s remind ourselves of some analogous cases in which an illuminating philosophical theory runs into unexpected trouble with the logically conceivable. Take the causal theory of perception: in order for a sensory experience to count as a perception there must be a causal connection between the experience and the object; it isn’t enough to see a clock that a clock be there and you have an experience as of a clock. This theory rightly distinguishes perception from veridical hallucination and it points to the indispensible role of causation in constituting perceptual facts. (The same can be said about memory: the memory impression must be caused by an earlier event in order to count as remembering it.) But no sooner was this theory propounded than counterexamples to it were constructed (note the word): we had the problem of deviant causal chains. Does this show that the causal theory of perception is a bad theory? Not at all: it merely shows that the conditions it identifies don’t logically guarantee perception in every possible world—they are not logically sufficient. But in all actual cases there are no such deviant causal chains and the theory works just fine; more important, it identifies the main elements of the perception relation, illuminatingly so. We shouldn’t throw out the theory simply because counterexamples to it can be produced: it gives us important information about what perception consists in. Or consider Bernard Suits’s definition of a game: an activity in which inefficient means are adopted to achieve an end (I oversimplify). Suppose counterexamples could be contrived showing that logically possible cases could satisfy these conditions and not be games (not that I think this can be done). Does that imply that Suits failed to identify the central element in what distinguishes a game from what he calls a “technical activity”? Obviously not; and all actual games may well obey his theory (and no non-games). Thus we should distinguish theoretical adequacy from the provision of logically necessary and sufficient conditions. We detach the adequacy of a theory from any claim of complete modal coverage. We separate the project of providing a good theory of games (the things themselves) from the project of providing a (complex) concept identical to the concept of a game. These are quite different enterprises—one about the nature of things as they actually exist, the other about the content of a concept that we can extend to merely possible cases. Both enterprises may be worth pursuing, but they should not be confused—hence the failure to do the latter does not undermine the success of the former. A good theory of X need not be a good theory of the concept of X that covers every conceivable application.[1]

            Let me illustrate the distinction by reference to a well-known paradigm—scientific natural kinds. Suppose a chemist announces that water consists of H2O. That is a very good theory: it connects water to molecular theory and it distinguishes water from other substances, among other things. Then a philosopher comes along and objects as follows: couldn’t there be some other chemical combination that also qualifies intuitively as water, as it might be H3O, so that the H2O theory doesn’t provide a logically necessary condition? Moreover, couldn’t hydrogen and oxygen molecules be distributed in a ratio of two to one but be so spread out as not to form what we would intuitively call water, so that the condition isn’t sufficient? The point is not so much that these are genuine counterexamples to a claim of logical necessity and sufficiency—though they do appear to be—but that they are irrelevant to the chemist’s claim. For the chemist was not asserting that, as a conceptual truth, water is H2O in all possible worlds; his claim was more limited than that (no matter what a philosopher may expect). His claim was more like this: the theory identifies the main elements of water, distinguishing it from other substances, and connecting it with molecular theory. It’s about actual water and what it’s made of not about how things are in possible worlds. He might go as far as to say that his claim is a nomological necessity—a lawlike truth about the actual world—but he has no interest in venturing claims about how things might be out there in logical space. His attitude towards the counterexamples cited will be one of sublime indifference, given that they do nothing to undermine his claim to winning a Nobel Prize in due course. Or consider heat and the theory that heat is molecular motion. Someone might object that there are conceivable cases in which we have heat without molecular motion and molecular motion without heat: some possible things that we would intuitively count as heat are correlated with some other physical phenomenon, and in some conceivable circumstances there could be molecular motion but no heat. Again, it doesn’t matter whether the counterexamples are persuasive; the point is that they don’t matter so far as the physical theory is concerned. That theory is not intended as a theory of how the concept of heat applies in imaginary possible worlds; it’s about heat as it actually exists and acts here and now.

            Old hands will no doubt be clamoring to explain about the necessity of identity: if the scientist is making a claim of identity, then he is committed to rejecting the counterexamples, so that they do count against his theory if they are genuinely possible cases. But why should we foist any such interpretation on his words (or thoughts)? This identity business is philosophy talk not chemistry talk. He said that water consists of H2O and heat is a manifestation of molecular motion; and these don’t force any modal claims on him—he might readily allow that water and heat could be different in other possible worlds.[2] Similarly, the epistemologist need not claim that knowledge is identical to true justified belief, which would land him in trouble with the Gettier counterexamples, given the necessity of identity; his claim could rather be that these are the main elements of knowledge, or that nearly all knowledge fits this analysis, or that it is a matter of natural law that knowledge is TJB, or that the central cases of knowledge conform to the theory, etc. He might cheerfully allow that the theory does not cover all conceivable cases, even acknowledging that the concept of knowledge is not identical with the concept of true justified belief. After all, philosophers only recently started fretting about necessary and sufficient conditions for concepts to apply: before that they were content to offer theories of things. In fact, this practice started around the middle of the twentieth century, possibly as a result of the logicist program in philosophy of mathematics—the attempt to rigorously define mathematical notions in terms of logic. Here the idea of a priori necessary and sufficient conditions had some purchase (see Russell’s theory of descriptions as an offshoot), and it was natural to hope for something similar in other areas of philosophy. But this was not the project of philosophy in earlier times, or independently of certain trends in analytical philosophy (Frege could be said to be the originator); instead people were trying to produce adequate theories, as judged by the usual criteria. The demands on conceptual analysis in terms of logically necessary and sufficient conditions are very stringent, but the philosopher need not be wedded to that methodology; and this means that there is room for a type of theory that doesn’t have such lofty goals. We can thus accept that TJB provides a good theory of knowledge without insisting that it captures all conceivable cases, either through lack of necessity or lack of sufficiency. This is what knowledge basically, centrally, paradigmatically, is—even if there are odd cases that don’t quite conform to it. It can be argued that not all knowledge requires belief (uncertain knowledge, animal knowledge), that not all knowledge requires justification (direct knowledge of one’s own mental states), and that not all knowledge even requires truth (can’t someone know that the golden mountain is golden, though this proposition is neither true nor false?): but these are not central cases, so they don’t undermine the general goodness of the TJB theory. Similarly, Gettier-type cases involve strange kinds of defective justification (e.g. Russell’s example of the accidentally accurate stopped clock); they are by no means common or central. This explains why no one thought that the TJB theory was vulnerable till Gettier came along—it wasn’t vulnerable, given its aims. What Gettier in effect did was force us to distinguish between two projects: giving a sound theory of knowledge (the thing) and providing necessary and sufficient conditions for the application of the concept of knowledge in all conceivable cases. We can engage in both projects but we shouldn’t let one be hostage to the fortunes of the other. We certainly shouldn’t give up on providing a theory of knowledge just because we can’t find necessary and sufficient conditions for the application of the concept. The TJB theory is a fine theory by any standards, a solid philosophical achievement, despite the counterexamples.[3] Indeed, we might applaud it for being precise enough to allow the construction of counterexamples to it (a simple true belief theory will not lead to the kind of ingenious cases invented by Gettier and others). The same is true for the causal theory of perception and memory and Suits’s theory of games (also Grice’s original analysis of speaker meaning). These are all great theories, exhibiting the power of a priori philosophical analysis, despite the possibility of clever counterexamples. One might be tempted to conclude that there will always be counterexamples in philosophy, but that doesn’t prevent us from coming up with excellent theories. There are counterexamples to the claim that tigers are striped and have four legs, but that doesn’t mean that this “theory” is defective in any way when properly understood.

[1] Compare the case of sentences: we could define a sentence as a meaningful combination of words expressing a complete thought. Is this definition sufficient? Isn’t Shakespeare’s “But me no buts” a meaningful combination of words expressing a complete thought, but it’s not a sentence (it isn’t grammatical)? It’s like “On me no ons” or “It me no its”. So a meaningful combination of words expressing a complete thought need not be a sentence. Fair enough, one might say, but that hardly undermines the general correctness of the definition in question. It only fails to apply in the oddest of cases.  

[2] A different kind of example: it might be a good theory of life to say that life is the operation of selfish genes, i.e. DNA molecules, while allowing that on other planets, or in other possible worlds, reproduction works differently with no DNA involved. It’s a good theory because of its explanatory power and unification of macro biology and microbiology, but it need not aspire to metaphysical necessity. In philosophy too a good theory might have many such “counterexamples”, just as a bad theory may have none (e.g. “knowledge is a very special kind of belief”).

[3] As Kripke would say, something can be a good “picture” without being a watertight “theory”; or as I prefer, something can be a good theory without being a watertight conceptual analysis. And it isn’t that such a theory aspires to being conceptually leak-proof.

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Attributes of Mind

 

 

Attributes of Mind

 

Three attributes of mind stand out: intentionality, subjectivity, and privacy. The mind is essentially about something; the mind is accessible only from a certain point of view; the mind is known directly only by its subject. I take it these attributes are familiar and I won’t elaborate on them (or defend them). Are they independent of each other or are they conceptually connected? Could they be instantiated separately? Is one of them basic? Are there three mind-body problems corresponding to each attribute or is there just one mind-body problem with three different formulations? These questions are by no means easy, because on the face of it the three attributes are differently defined. There is some feeling, I think, that intentionality is basic: subjectivity and privacy are consequences of it. But the conceptual links are obscure partly because intentionality is itself obscure (does anyone know what “intentional inexistence” means or what “directedness” is?). In intentionality a world is presented to a subject, and the upshot is that only someone with that type of presentation can know what it involves, and no one else can have the kind of epistemic access to it that the subject has. Obscurely, intentionality entails subjectivity and privacy (the bat has experiences of things and this determines what it’s like to be a bat and no one else can observe what the bat is experiencing). The mind is outer-directed, inwardly grasped, and not publicly known; and it is because of intentionality that subjectivity and privacy obtain—though the links are not transparent. So at least we are inclined to suppose: the attributes of subjectivity and privacy don’t seem basic relative to intentionality, and it is implausible that the three attributes are unconnected. They come as a package deal not as a mere list. Can we articulate this dependence further?

            Perhaps we can find some illumination by considering matter (corporeal things). What are the essential attributes of matter? Matter is extended in space, objective, and public: it has shape and size, can be grasped from many points of view, and can be observed by different perceivers. Are these independent attributes or do they form an intelligible cluster? We know what Descartes would say: extension is the basic defining attribute of matter, with objectivity and publicity consequences of it. Again, the links are not totally transparent, but they are intuitively compelling: extension in space gives rise to objectivity (i.e. objects in space can be grasped from many perceptual points of view), and what is extended in space can be perceived by the senses. So we can simplify and say that the essential attribute of matter is extension, with objectivity and publicity as derivative (though introducing various epistemic considerations). Hence it has been common to describe matter as extended substance: it is the form that reality (“substance”) takes when it is what we call “physical”. By analogy, we can say that the essential attribute of mind is intentionality, with subjectivity and privacy as derivative. It is the form that reality (“substance”) takes when it is what we describe as “mental”. These are necessary truths of the metaphysics of matter and mind. Matter is reality extended in space and having spatial relations to other matter; mind is reality pointing beyond itself and not standing in spatial relations to other things (intentionality doesn’t even require the existence of what it “points” to). Matter exists by virtue of having extension; mind exists by virtue of having intention (if I may put it so). Matter lacks intentionality (it doesn’t intend anything); mind lacks extension (it doesn’t occupy space with a specific shape and size). These are two forms that reality may take—two “modes of being” that reality may assume. There are extensional facts and intentional facts.

            We can now pose the following question: Why does reality (existing stuff) take these two forms? In the case of matter the only answer can be that this is what matter is: if you are going to have matter, you are going to need extension (God had no choice in the matter of matter). The big bang supposedly created matter and space (they are coeval), so it had no choice about how matter would exist, i.e. by means of extension. But in the case of mind extension will not suffice: extended things don’t have intentionality, not in virtue of extension anyway. So if mind is to exist reality must be capable of intentionality. How is it so capable? Here is a hypothesis: intentionality is the form that reality takes when it is not physical. As a matter of metaphysics, reality can either be extended (hence material) or it can be intentional (hence mental). Since mind lacks extension, it can only exist by being intentional (in the technical sense), because there is no other way for reality to exist. We might try to imagine many ways reality could exist—many “modes of being”—but in fact there are just two: by extension or by intention.[1] Both are basic forms that reality may assume. Before the big bang there was no extension (no matter in space), but there could have been intention (a sort of primitive “directedness”). Indeed, we can envisage a kind of quasi-mental sea of intentionality existing prior to the emergence of extended stuff. A Brentano-style panpsychist will suppose that the basic mental nature of the universe is actually constituted by intentionality (or “proto-intentionality”). The point I am making is that both extension and intention are ways that things might primitively be. Intention doesn’t derive from extension (it couldn’t) but instead is just how reality is constituted when it isn’t material. Thus the falsity of materialism is the reason mind is intentional: it leaves the mind with no choice about how to be—because if you are not material you must be intentional (likewise if you are not intentional you must be material). That, at any rate, is the hypothesis: the inescapable dualism (not pluralism!) of the cosmos—the necessity to be either extended or intended (so to speak). We might even speculate that the default condition of the universe is intentionality, with extension introduced later into the picture by way of the big bang. Matter came late to the party, invited in by the big bang’s obsession with extension in space; before that the universe was a hotbed of intentionality (or some primitive antecedent of what we know today by that name). Matter (extended substance) is the anomaly, the parvenu, the new kid on the block; mind in the form of intentionality is the normal way reality comports itself—the old money, the ancient customs, the way things are traditionally done. If there is going to be immaterial substance (and before the big bang that’s all there was, matter requiring spatial extension), there is no choice but to go with intentionality—there being no other way that reality can be. Extension and intention exhaust the options, according to the hypothesis (and really what else could reality be?).[2] Descartes supposed that the essence of mind is thought; that was too narrow and Brentano’s intentionality is its more inclusive heir: but he never contemplated any third possibility—something other than thought or extension. There is just no third option, as a matter of metaphysical necessity: to be is to be either extended on intended—spread out in space or directed beyond itself. Everything material has extension and everything mental has intention, and there is nothing but the material and the mental. What we call the mind is reality in its non-extended mode just as what we call matter is reality in its non-intended mode. Intention then gives rise to subjectivity and privacy, as extension gives rise to objectivity and publicity. That is how the universe is basically organized.

            Of course, all this is deeply mysterious. Why did the universe decide to give birth to extended stuff late in its lifecycle? How did it pull off that trick? What does it mean to “occupy” space? And what exactly is the alleged primitive intentionality (we have enough trouble understanding the sophisticated kind we encounter in ourselves every day)? Does it allow for directedness towards the non-existent? Might it be that both sorts of reality derive from some yet more basic stuff of which they are both aspects? Is some sort of idealism indicated? How can an organism harbor both sorts of reality given that organisms are extended substances with intentional properties? By rights such a thing ought to be impossible, since extension can’t give rise to intention. Can we avoid dualism? Are our concepts hopelessly inadequate for doing advanced cosmology? Even if the hypothesis of a dual reality is correct, how could it be established? What does seem clear is that intentionality, as understood (sic) by Brentano, doesn’t fit into a world of extended bodies in space standing in spatial relations; that is precisely what the mind is not according to Brentano’s thesis. All we know is that we have two types of being here—two ways reality can configure itself. These appear irreducibly distinct—yet curiously conjoined. Presumably the brain is more than an extended thing, given that it powers the mind, but nothing visible in the brain suggests what this more amounts to. We can report, I think, that mind is more complex than matter in the sense that intentionality is a more complex phenomenon than extension: mere extension is simpler than the kind of directedness Brentano had in mind, especially in relation to non-existence. Intentionality has more internal structure, more design; extension is “dumber” than intention. Not that extension is as simple as a mathematical point; after all, it exhibits all the complexity of geometry. But it is grosser than intention, less articulated. Intention needs a subject and an Object and a “relation” of apperception (whatever that may be). If this structure characterizes much of reality (“pan-intentionalism”), then reality is more articulated than the simple extension model suggests. A human preference for simplicity therefore militates against the idea. Geometry is not adequate to capture it. Our worldview tends to be dominated by our senses, but these are geared to representing extended things in space; a completely different way of thinking is needed to conceptualize intentionality. We possess such a way in the form of introspection, but it is hard to integrate this with the perceptual viewpoint (without introspection we would probably never have thought of intentionality). Russell would say we are acquainted with the underlying intentional structure of the world in acts of introspection, but perception yields nothing of this sort, only extended objects in space. We tend to think that the objects of perception are basic and primary, but this bias clashes with the facts of introspection. Ideally we should be open to both sorts of reality (Berkeley had a lot of trouble with the very concept of matter). True, there are puzzles aplenty, but that (as they say) is the mark of a fruitful research program. The concepts of intentionality and extension are the fundamental concepts in their respective domains, and they form the twin pillars of a realistic cosmology.[3]

 

[1] It might be tempting to suppose that mind could exist in a non-intentional form, as a kind pure subjectivity—a pre-intentional consciousness. Thus we have William James’s famous phrase “a blooming buzzing confusion” used to characterize the mind of the infant before real thought steps in. But such an idea tacitly brings in intentionality because blooming and buzzing are states of mind in which things outside seem a certain way—as with flowers and bees. Whenever there is consciousness there is some kind of outer-directedness no matter how vague or general or inarticulate. Mind requires intentionality—as matter requires extensionality. 

[2] I need to say a word about mathematics, a big subject in the present context. It might be said that mathematical existence is a third type of reality distinct from material extension and mental intention. I don’t necessarily disagree, but mathematical reality isn’t going to cut it as the essence of the mental: it is too abstract and unchanging. Empirical reality has only two ways to be; mathematics can happily exist in its separate sphere. Of course, one might try to reduce mathematics to matter or mind (nominalism or psychologism), thereby keeping things down to two basic categories; but even if we resist such reductions and stick to Platonism, mathematics doesn’t make room for a third category of non-abstract reality. Concrete reality is (according to our hypothesis) necessarily limited to the two categories of the extended and the intended (matter and thought, roughly).

[3] I would say that despite the huge influence of Brentano’s concept of intentionality (one of the great discoveries of philosophy) it has never been fully integrated into the subject. True, it shaped phenomenology (and existentialism), and is often cited in works of analytic philosophy, but it has never formed the foundation of a systematic metaphysics. Nor has it received the analytical attention that has been lavished on the notion of linguistic reference (its spoken analogue). One searches in vain for any incorporation of it into the works of Russell and Wittgenstein, as well as other luminaries. Partly this may have to do with Brentano’s less than lucid style (though it isn’t that bad), but more likely it results from the internal obscurity of the notion: for it is hard to know what exactly we are dealing with here. Linguistic reference gives the impression (probably illusory) that we know what we are talking about, but words like “directedness” and “intentional inexistence” are not calculated to promote confidence that we have hold of a real phenomenon. Nevertheless, the intuitive power of the notion has ensured its continued presence on the philosophical scene. For my part, I’d like to see it play a more prominent role in analytical philosophy of mind and in metaphysics.

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Intentionality and Psychologism

 

 

Intentionality and Psychologism

 

Brentano’s thesis is that every mental phenomenon is directed to an Object distinct from itself.[1] It has an extra-mental correlate—the thing thought about or perceived or desired or loved or hated, etc. This entity may or may not exist (but I will ignore the latter case from now on). On the one hand, we have the mental phenomenon itself, on the other, the Object of the phenomenon. What this Object is can be quite various; it is certainly not to be identified with an existent material thing. It can be viewed as a theoretical entity whose existence (sic) follows from the nature of the mental: objects, properties, and states of affairs will be included, but also anything else called for by the mental phenomenon in question. There is nothing in Brentano’s formulation that requires the Object to be part of common sense, or even cognitively available to the subject. One question we can ask is what counts as a mental phenomenon for Brentano: does he mean a whole mental state like a judgment or desire, or does he mean to include constituents of such a state? That is, do concepts also have intentionality? I mean “concept” in the broadest sense that corresponds to meaning or Frege’s Sinn not just mental representations of properties—thus including quantifier concepts, connective concepts, modal concepts, ethical concepts, logical concepts, and so on. Do all of these have an extra-mental correlate as their Object? I propose that we take Brentano’s thesis literally and apply it to these mental phenomena too; indeed, we might take the Object of a whole mental state to be a function of the Objects corresponding to the constituents of that state. If so, we are going to need a specification of which Object such a mental primitive is directed towards (compare Frege’s generalized theory of reference).

            I said that each mental phenomenon must have an extra-mental correlate, but of course this is wrong construed completely generally, since some mental states take other mental states as Objects, either in oneself or in others. I can believe that I’m in pain[2] and I can deplore your political beliefs, for example. But these mental states must themselves be about something other than themselves, so that my mental states directed towards them will inherit their Objects. In fact, a potential regress lurks here: if the mental state that my mental state is about itself has a mental state as its Object, then we will need a further Object to be the Object of this mental state. According to the intentionality thesis, then, such chains of mental states will bottom about in a non-mental Object. So we may as well say that every mental state ultimately has a non-mental Object as correlate. But we have still not said what these Objects are—what is it that every mental phenomenon must bring with it as a distinct entity? Here our options are wide open; so far we have only a schema not an articulated theory. We might favor existing material objects and their properties, or we might prefer some sort of peculiar “intentional object”; and when it comes to quantifiers and connectives we can wax more abstruse—maybe the Objects here are Fregean functions, taken either in extension or intension. We might even suggest that the Object of the concept and is the truth table corresponding to conjunction. Nothing in Brentano’s formulation stipulates that the subject should be conscious of the Object, let alone be in a position to define or articulate it: Brentano doesn’t say the required Object must be known by the subject—it merely has to be. So the Object of and could be a set of introduction and elimination rules, or a functional role, or even a brain state—as long as it is distinct from the concept and itself (it could even be an idea in the mind of God). The essence of the thesis is just that every mental phenomenon is directed to an Object of some sort as part of its very nature. In principle it could be abstract, fictional, or recondite.

            Suppose I am thinking about physics and contemplating the law of gravity: I am deploying the concept the law of gravity. What is the Object of my mental act? Surely it is the law of gravity, construed as a non-mental thing. So natural laws can be Objects of mental states too. I could be wrong about such laws, but they would still be the Objects of my thought (compare perception and material objects). Or suppose I am thinking about morality and contemplating the Golden Rule: isn’t the Object of my thought precisely the Golden Rule? But then it must be distinct from my contemplation of it, by Brentano’s thesis; and the same for any moral thought—the value that is thought about must be distinct from the thinking about it. The concept good must have an Object that is not identical to that concept, which we might think of as the property of being good (or the Form of the Good if we follow Plato). Not that we are constrained to such entities by Brentano’s thesis alone, but they would be examples of the kind of thing that is required by the thesis. What matters is that they are not mental. For the thesis is that the mental is always inextricably bound up with the non-mental. Now let’s consider logical reasoning: I am thinking logically about a problem and I engage in a bit of logical inference, say by modus ponens. What is the Object of my mental process? The answer is modus ponens (or something else if we want to get eccentric about it, say the Andromeda galaxy, but let’s stick to modus ponens). But this logical law must be non-mental in order to be the Object of my mental act of employing it. Therefore psychologism is false. The law can’t be identical to the mental process I am engaging in, since that process needs an extra-mental correlate to be its Object. Thus Brentano’s thesis refutes psychologism about logic. The mental process of logical reasoning must be about something, but this something can’t be itself, so logical laws can’t be identical to logical reasoning. Of course, we might have come to this conclusion on other grounds (see Frege), but it is striking that the relatively anodyne claim of universal intentionality should yield such a powerful result. There seems to be a strong tendency to psychologize logic, but this is incompatible with the principle that all mental phenomena need a non-mental Object. We simply need to extend Brentano’s thesis from the obvious cases to take in such mental phenomena as logical reasoning: because inference too has intentionality, like thinking about natural laws and ethical precepts. The mental process of inferring must itself be about something, and that something is logic. If we were to try to reduce logic to logical reasoning (i.e. adopt psychologism), then we would face the question: “But what is logical reasoning about?” It can’t be about itself, so it must be about something else, and that something is surely logical reality (whatever exactly that is). A sensory perception must be about something, but that something can’t be itself, so there has to be something non-mental involved (e.g. a material object); logical reasoning obeys the same rule, so that psychologism is excluded. Psychologism with respect to logic is really a species of idealism, and Brentano’s thesis cuts against idealism, since mental states must be directed towards extra-mental entities of some sort (not even Berkeley thinks that ideas of sense are representations of themselves). At the least we need something like intentional objects, which are not mental (what they are is hard to say). So Brentano’s thesis has metaphysical teeth precisely because it connects the mental with the non-mental. His insight was that the mind is essentially a representing thing, but that it doesn’t represent itself qua mind: it opens out onto a wider world (though this world might not exist). In contrast, the body is a non-representing thing, making no reference to anything beyond itself (it makes no referenceat all). Idealists (including proponents of psychologism) make the mistake of assimilating the mind to the body, ironically enough, ignoring the way the mind reaches out beyond itself; but once we take the measure of intentionality we see that there cannot be only the mind (there could be only the body). If there is mind, there must be something other than mind, such as objects, properties, states of affairs, truth functions, natural laws, ethical values, and laws of logic. It isn’t that the existence of mind entails the existence of the commonsense world (we haven’t refuted skepticism), but there has to be a level of reality (there is no other term) beyond the mental as such. There has to be something non-mental for the mind to latch onto even if it is just those elusive intentional objects (or possibly Platonic forms).[3]  

 

[1] I write “Object” to indicate that I am using the word in the sense it has in “object of thought” where anything thought about qualifies as an Object (including properties and functions).

[2] It is sometimes thought that pain is a counterexample to Brentano’s thesis, since it has no Object beyond itself. There are two cases to consider: emotional pain and physical pain. In emotional pain the extra Object will be whatever is the cause or occasion of the pain—the rejection, loss, treachery, or perfidy, as the case may be. In physical pain it will be the part of the body where the pain is felt to occur (which may not actually exist). No pain is ever completely dissociated from accompanying allusions to distinct Objects.  

[3] The question of why the mind is intentional is left open and is difficult to answer. Could there be a type of mind, not necessarily conceivable by us, that is not intentional? What function does intentionality serve, if any? Does it have anything to do with information processing? What is its physical basis in the brain? Does it derive from any more basic feature of the cosmos? What is its connection to consciousness? How did it evolve? It is certainly something remarkable and not present in non-mental reality, but we know little about it beyond its evident existence.  

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Epistemic Unity

 

 

Epistemic Unity

 

Epistemic unity among inquirers is an important goal of all inquiry. We strive to arrive at the same opinion on a given subject. We try to eliminate diversity of opinion, divergence of belief. The conscientious inquirer seeks consensus, convergence, homogeneity of belief. To this end we employ methods that reliably lead to identity of belief among inquirers; a method that reliably leads to belief divergence would ipso facto be defective. Why do we do this? Because reality itself is a unity, a single way things are. Truth is exclusive: what is true rules out what is false. If it’s true that snow is white, then it’s false that snow is purple; and if some people believe the latter, then their beliefs are false. Truth is not inclusive of the false. Since we aim at true belief we aim at unity of belief, because truth itself is unitary. Truth and epistemic unity go hand in hand. If there were many conflicting truths (snow is both white and purple), then epistemic unity would not be a value; on the contrary, we would strive for epistemic plurality. It is the same with logical validity: only one conclusion follows from a given set of premises. We can’t infer both p and not-p from the same set of premises. Logic excludes certain inferences while including others. To put it differently, the enterprise of knowledge is inherently exclusive and unitary, not inclusive and diverse. This is why we have refutation and falsification—in order to weed out error and falsehood. The enterprise of acquiring knowledge is inherently rejecting and selective, not accepting and indiscriminate—indeed, it must be discriminative (with respect to belief not people). Inevitably this will lead to distress, disappointment, and discomfort: it’s hard to see your pet theory refuted! But that is the nature of the game: the ideal of epistemic unity guarantees it. Ideally, then, everyone will in the end share the same set of beliefs—those that correspond to reality (which is necessarily one way rather than another). Rationality itself prescribes interpersonal identity of belief, a single right way to believe. Differences of opinion are contrary to the dictates of reason, i.e. when they concern matters of fact.[1] Reason does not welcome all viewpoints; it opposes some viewpoints and favors others. In an ideal world everybody would agree. We might think of human history as a gradual progression towards complete epistemic unity, in which all divergence, disagreement, and diversity have been expunged. We are all one, epistemologically speaking, or should be.

            What I have just said is mere truism—a set of platitudes about truth, reason, belief, and intellectual inquiry. But notice how it conflicts with a rhetoric that emphasizes diversity, inclusiveness, and equality. The enterprise of knowledge is against those values if applied to the methods of rational inquiry: it recommends unity, exclusivity, and inequality (beliefs are not equal one of them is false). Of course, it may accept such values if intended differently, but it will insist that the opposite values must obtain in the sphere of intellectual endeavor. It will certainly object to any effort to bolster those different aims by appeal to the nature of rational inquiry itself. Aiming at identity of belief is not aiming at other sorts of identity. What is interesting is that the exclusive and homogenizing nature of rational inquiry can (and must) coexist with recognizing other sorts of diversity and inclusiveness. The two must not be muddled or glossed over. It is entirely consistent to insist on stringent adherence to unity and exclusiveness in intellectual matters while accepting that disunity and inclusiveness can operate along other dimensions. The community of inquirers seeks unity of belief but not unity of race, sex, sexual preference, taste in music, height, pulchritude, and so on. Of course, the exclusionary aspects of truth and knowledge may be upsetting to some—it may not cater to their “wellness” or “comfort level” or sense of “safety”. But knowledge is not in the business of therapy: knowledge does not seek to soothe or flatter or condone. These are completely different enterprises: a university may cater to one, a hospital to another. A teacher is not a therapist. And there is no escaping the fact that rational inquiry is inherently “discriminatory”: it seeks to discriminate the true from the false, the justified from the unjustified. It has no “tolerance” for error. It sets its face against diversity of belief, if that means allowing false belief to flourish. Education is the dissemination of shared true belief, not the celebration of divergent beliefs. An education in geography, say, is not “open” to divergent geographical beliefs, allowing for the belief that Africa is smaller than England. Education forms an exclusive club—those that have it and those that don’t. This applies as much to electricians and plumbers as university professors (you don’t want much diversity of electrical knowledge if your power goes out). Students need to understand that they are being initiated into an exclusive fraternity that prizes a specific type of knowledge. They should also understand that cognitive identity is the aim of the education they receive: they are to be brought to be identical to each other with respect to knowledge. Despite other differences, they converge in this one vital respect—what they know. This unites them. So the unity of knowledge brings about social unity—an important value. It should not be forgotten or occluded or demonized: people can be brought together by means of education provided that it is recognized that epistemic unity is possible and desirable. In a world in which irresoluble diversity of opinion is deemed tolerable and even celebrated the virtues and benefits of shared knowledge will be lost. We should insist on fostering epistemic unity not questioning it. Exclusiveness, unity, inequality![2]

 

[1] Of course there can be culinary or aesthetic differences of opinion, and it is often not easy to discern the truth, but this doesn’t undermine the idea that we should seek convergence of belief, i.e. convergence on the objective facts of the matter. Epistemic unity is a “regulative ideal”.

[2] I would put moral education and moral knowledge at the top of the list. Moral belief does and should operate exclusively, ruling out immoral or evil beliefs. Ideally, all moral beings should agree in their moral convictions. And not all moral beliefs are equal: some are better than others. Determining the correct morality is another matter, but moral knowledge seeks epistemic unity, like all knowledge.

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Quantifiers and Mass Terms

 

 

Quantifiers and Mass Terms

 

The usual approach to quantification focuses on quantifier words combined with count nouns, as in “All men are mortal” and “Some sheep are black”. We are told that such sentences require a paraphrase by means of variables ranging over objects (the “domain of quantification”)—“for some object x etc.”. But there are quantified sentences that employ mass terms not count nouns, as in “All coal is black” or “There is some milk in the fridge”. No objectseems to be meant—no x such that… It makes sense to ask how many objects are thus and so in response to a quantification using a count noun, but we can’t ask how many coal are black or what the number of milk is. We can ask how much coal or milk there is in a certain location, but not how many coal or milk is there. Mass term quantifications don’t “range over” a class of countable objects that can be assigned to bound variables. That is not how their semantics works. Yet the logic of such sentences follows the logic of count noun quantifications: from “All coal is black” and “This is coal” we can infer “This is black”. So it looks as if the standard semantics doesn’t capture the logical implications that are involved. This means that predicate logic is inadequate to capture quantifier entailments. Not good!

            It might be thought (hoped) that mass term quantification can be analyzed by means of count noun quantification; we just need to bring in an ontology of chunks, lumps, pieces, volumes, morsels, and smidgens. Thus we have “All chunks of coal are black” and “There is a volume of milk in the fridge”. This already sounds stilted, but it also trades on a correspondence that doesn’t amount to a paraphrase. It is true that we can manufacture a truth about objects by employing such dummy sortals, but that doesn’t mean that the two mean the same thing. Likewise we can contrive a mass term quantification for any count noun quantification, but it would be wrong to claim semantic equivalence. Consider “There are many cod fish in the North Sea” and “There is a large amount of codfish in the North Sea”, where “codfish” functions as a mass term like “salmon” or “halibut”. Where there are fishy objects there is fishy stuff, and where there is fishy stuff there are fishy objects. But does anyone think we can analyze “All men are mortal” as “All man stuff is mortal”? One type of sentence speaks of objects of a certain kind; the other type speaks of stuff of a certain kind. Objects and stuff go together, but talking of one is not talking of the other. Also, the paraphrase in terms of dummy sortals doesn’t always get the truth conditions right: it may be true that all coal is black but not that all pieces of coal are black, because some pieces might be too small to have color; and the milk in the fridge might be scattered about not collected into a discrete volume. And isn’t it consistent to reject an ontology of objects while accepting that the world contains stuffs? There is coal and milk and gold and blood but there are no objects corresponding to these stuffs (“stuff metaphysics”). Stuffs are manifested at locations, according to this view, but there are no real objects that fall under mass terms. You can be an eliminativist about objects but a realist about stuffs. There is certainly no obligation to accept the count noun paraphrase, clunky as it is. It looks like an ad hoc attempt to save a theory not a natural semantic analysis.

            Note that this point also destroys Russell’s theory of descriptions: for we also have “The milk in the fridge is off”, and this can’t be paraphrased by quantifying over milky objects (“There is a unique volume v such that v is milk and v is in the fridge and v is off”). Mass term definite descriptions don’t mean the same as corresponding count noun definite descriptions. Russell’s theory works smoothly enough for descriptions that speak of objects but not for descriptions that speak of stuffs—kings of France but not amounts of butter (“The butter on the table is rancid”). True, we can still use quantifier expressions to paraphrase such descriptions, but these expressions can’t be analyzed by using the standard apparatus of variables and domains of quantification. This is no more plausible than supposing that object quantification can be analyzed using an ontology of stuffs—as with “cod fish” and “codfish”. Objects are made of a certain kind of stuff, but talking about objects is not talking about the stuff they are made of. So it turns out that Russell’s theory, as normally formulated, is too wedded to the standard analysis of quantification; we need to broaden that analysis so as to take in descriptions that employ mass terms.

            So what is the correct analysis of such quantification? I don’t know: it seems to defy the usual type of semantic construction built out of words for objects and properties. What does “some milk” mean? Part of the problem is not knowing what “milk” means: does it refer to the aggregate of all volumes of milk (whatever exactly that means), or is it an abstract singular term denoting the Platonic form MILK, or is it not referential at all? And is some milk a part of the reference of “milk”, or an instance of it, or not a relation to it at all? The semantics of quantifier phrases like this (“most milk”, “a lot of milk”, “nearly all milk”, etc.) is obscure. So we really don’t have a decent semantics for quantifier words as they occur in natural language; and predicate logic (“quantification theory”) is a poor representation of the logic of quantifiers. At best it deals with a restricted class of quantificational inferences. People like to proclaim the great success of modern logical symbolism in capturing the logic of quantifiers, but it turns out that this is only half the story; a lot of quantifier logic is not captured by this symbolism. It works nicely for mathematical quantification because arithmetic isn’t about numerical stuff, but for stuff-related quantification it doesn’t even get off the ground. We already knew that mass terms make trouble for the semantic categories recognized in formal logic (are they predicates or individual constants?); well, it turns out that they also upset the usual theory of quantifiers, both standard and non-standard. Logicians might want to drink some warm milk.[1]

 

[1] I wouldn’t be surprised if linguists have noted the linguistic phenomena here recorded, but my knowledge of linguistics doesn’t extend far enough to be sure. There was a flurry of work about mass terms a couple of decades ago in philosophy, but I don’t recall any mention of the difficulties posed by mass term quantification.

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Footnote to “Why Does Philosophy Exist?”

[1] I suspect some of the hostility to philosophy in certain academic circles arises from a sense that philosophy has no right to exist—that it is just an institutional holdover from earlier times. For the subject seems to persist without solving its problems and yet there is no good explanation of this fact. So the only reason for its presence must be the heavy weight of academic tradition. It would be different if philosophy dealt with problems about the incredibly small or impossibly remote! Then its lack of progress would be perfectly understandabe.

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Why Does Philosophy Exist?

 

 

Why Does Philosophy Exist?

 

It is easy to see why most subjects exist. Geography exists because planet Earth is divided into parts that can be mapped: there are geographical facts that can be ascertained. Physics and chemistry exist because the world contains physical and chemical facts (objects, properties) that can be discovered. Psychology exists because there are minds that can be investigated. Biology exists because there are organisms. Mathematics exists because the world can be counted and measured. Ethics exists because people do right and wrong things. But why does philosophy exist? Is it because the world contains philosophical facts that can be ascertained? That sounds wrong: philosophy consists of problems raised by the non-philosophical world—problems of a philosophical nature. If there were no such problems, philosophy would not exist (the other subjects would still exist even if there were no problems in them). Other subjects may investigate the same phenomena as philosophy, but they do so non-philosophically (the “adverbial theory of philosophy”). So what produces this distinctive type of problem? Following the example of the other disciplines, we might suggest that the world contains philosophical objects, properties, events, and facts–but that sounds like a category mistake. We must rather ask what gives rise to philosophical problems, this being what constitutes the subject matter of philosophy.

            Three suggestions are familiar: reality, concepts, and language. Thus it might be supposed that reality contains philosophically problematic entities such as consciousness and free will. But reality isn’t uncertain about whether it exists or what its nature is: things are not objectively philosophically problematic. Things are philosophically problematic only in relation to us (or other intelligent beings). As God surveys the world nothing stands out to him as philosophically problematic. The uncertainties and theoretical rivalries of philosophy are not mirrored in objective reality: the world is what it is and not some other thing. If the mind is really an immaterial substance, then that is what it is, philosophical disagreement be hanged. Philosophy arises from the state of our knowledge not from the state of reality. It is not that one kind of entity is intrinsically “more philosophical” than another—though one kind of entity can produce more philosophical puzzlement in our minds than another. Meaning is more philosophically challenging than syntax and phonetics, but to an omniscient mind they would be on a par. So the source of philosophical problems (i.e. philosophy) can’t be reality considered sub specie aeternitatis. A second idea is that philosophy arises from the nature of our concepts: our concepts are inadequate or misleading in some way, and this causes philosophical perplexity in us. Perhaps they are superficial or confused or contradictory or just plain crude—in any case, they bring philosophy into existence. If they could be revised or reformed or replaced, we could make philosophy disappear by removing the source of its problems. Philosophy exists because of the defective nature of our conceptual scheme. This view raises many questions: How exactly do our concepts give rise to these problems? Why do we have concepts that lead to such problems? What is it about our concept of consciousness, say, that leads us to the philosophical difficulties we encounter? What would a concept of consciousness be like that did not lead to philosophical problems? It is hard to believe that our concepts could have philosophical controversy baked into them, and into only them; they seem to function perfectly well most of the time, so why do they trip us up when we start philosophizing? It can’t be their constituent structure or their ease of combination. How could human thought necessarily lead to philosophical conundrums—in virtue of what property of it might this happen? Third and familiar, there is the claim that language is the source of all the trouble: reality itself is not philosophically problematic, our concepts are in good order, but our spoken language systematically misleads us (“bewitches” us). But why should our language exercise such enormous power—the power to generate the ancient and venerable problems of philosophy? Can’t we just ignore it, as we ignore parts of it already? It doesn’t have to dominate our thought any more than its sounds do. And what serious philosophical problem has ever been resolved by exposing the supposed logical defects of our natural spoken language? The whole idea is preposterously optimistic. If it were on the right lines, we should have put a stop to philosophy long ago, by judicious attention to linguistic forms. It is simply not credible that philosophy exists because our language is misleading (despite a spate of twentieth century enthusiasm for the idea). So the standard suggestions don’t work.

            But we have not yet run out of possible theories. Might it be that philosophical issues are like political and practical issues in the sense that there is something to be said for several different positions on them? Is Scottish independence a good idea, should the British monarchy be abolished, is Turgenev as good a writer as Tolstoy? There is irresoluble controversy about such questions, as there is about philosophical questions, so perhaps this is why philosophy exists. But this is a bad analogy and the underlying conception of philosophy is mistaken. The issues cited are practical, political, or aesthetic, but philosophical issues are not like that; and there is surely a fact of the matter about the relation of mind to body not just a debatable question about which opinions may reasonably differ. This is why philosophers don’t say, “I can see different points of view on this issue, but I think the wisest course is to adopt theory T”. In this respect philosophical problems are like problems in the sciences—questions about what the facts are, not questions about what stance to adopt all things considered. It doesn’t come down to what to do or think “on balance”. Nor do philosophical problems owe their existence to remoteness in time (like history) or distance in space (like astronomy) or being too small to see (like atomic physics) or being private and unobservable (like psychology); many of them are about present-day perceptible nearby things. Philosophical problems have an obscure etiology not explicable in terms of the usual kinds of inaccessibility. We have viable theories of ignorance in other fields, but in philosophy the ignorance is itself mysterious: we don’t know why philosophical problems are so difficult. In fact, it really shouldn’t be hard to know what knowledge is, say, since we have knowledge and can introspect our epistemic state; and consciousness is arguably the best-known thing there is, yet completely mysterious. Or time, space, matter, causality, value, perception, meaning, and so on through a familiar list. These are all extremely proximate and yet extremely puzzling.

            Here is another idea, suggested by Thomas Nagel’s work.[1] Philosophy arises because of a clash between subjective and objective viewpoints: for example, we can view ourselves from the inside by adopting a first-person point of view, or we can view ourselves from the outside as embodied beings in an objective world of space and time. Now we are approaching the question in the right way, trying to find what is unique to philosophy: perhaps the problems of philosophy arise from a need to integrate clashing points of view generated by a difference between subjective and objective perspectives. But there are problems with this approach, concerning necessity and sufficiency. It doesn’t seem like a necessary condition for the existence of a philosophical problem that it involves a clash of subjective and objective perspectives, since the problems can arise from within a purely objective perspective—for example, relational versus absolute theories of space, or different theories of time, or whether freedom is the ability to do otherwise or just doing what you want, or whether perception is direct or indirect, or whether causality is just constant conjunction or involves some sort of necessity . These problems are independent of subjective and objective points of view. And the difference between subjective and objective viewpoints also arises in other areas and yet philosophy is not the result—as with our different perspectives on the physical world. The perceptual perspective coexists with the abstract mathematical perspective and yet we don’t sense a deep philosophical problem here, because we know that we are conscious beings embedded in a physical universe, so there should be different ways of apprehending the physical world. The mere difference between subjective viewpoints and (more or less) objective viewpoints is not sufficient to generate a distinctively philosophical problem.[2] So these materials don’t provide an adequate explanation of the existence of philosophy, though they are no doubt relevant to some philosophical problems.

            One salient aspect of philosophy seems characteristic of it, namely that we have no surefire method of verification (or falsification) for philosophical claims. We don’t have the method of experiment or sensory observation, nor can we use the method of proof (as in mathematics). All we have are “intuitions” and “arguments”: we don’t have empirical observation, measurement, and calculation. No wonder we face unsolvable problems—we don’t have a method for solving them! We have questions but we don’t have procedures for answering them comparable to those used in other disciplines. There are two replies to this diagnosis. First, we shouldn’t underestimate the methods we do use in philosophy, such as the thought experiment and logical deduction; these methods can lead to genuine philosophical knowledge, typically by producing counterexamples to philosophical theses. And we shouldn’t overestimate the verification methods of other disciplines such as psychology, linguistics, history, and literary theory. A lot remains unverifiable in these fields, yet they don’t count as philosophy. Second, what if astronomy, physics, and chemistry lacked the methods of verification they now possess—would that make them into branches of philosophy? It is only contingent that we can verify claims in these fields, and removing the verification procedures doesn’t convert them into parts of philosophy—they would just be unverifiable science. It has to be something about the nature of the problems as such that makes them into philosophical problems, not the availability or otherwise of verification procedures. But what is that? It is true enough that philosophy lacks apodictic methods, but that seems neither necessary nor sufficient to constitute a subject as philosophical.

            Maybe the problem is epistemic: we suffer from a serious epistemic gap and this is what causes philosophy to exist. Not to put too fine a point on it, we don’t know what we are talking about. Our knowledge of reality is glancing and pragmatically based, geared towards specific practical ends, not designed to reveal the whole truth about the universe, and we labor under this constitutional limitation. For example, there are philosophical problems about color—is it subjective or objective, real or unreal, relational or non-relational? These problems are hard to resolve, though we see colors all the time and have concepts and words for them. It seems that we just don’t know what colors are—what constitutes them. We know what wavelengths of light are (up to a point), so there is no comparable philosophical problem about wavelengths; but we really don’t grasp what colors are, though we are aware of color appearances. Likewise, we know what neurons are but we don’t know what consciousness is—only the way it appears to us. We know there can’t be neurons without brains and chemicals, but we don’t know whether there can be consciousness without brains and chemicals—though we may have firm philosophical opinions on the matter. We know what syntax and phonetics are, but not meaning. We know what ethical behavior is (again up to a point), but we don’t know what ethical value is. We know what digestion is, but we don’t know what knowledge is, though both are attributes of a living organism. We know all about muscle contraction, but we don’t know what freedom is—we have no science of it, no physiology. So the things of philosophical interest are the things that fall outside of our epistemic capacities in some crucial respect (not in all respects). And if you don’t know what something is, you are not going to have very good theories of it, especially if your ignorance is principled and systematic. Why is time so philosophically problematic? Because we really don’t know what time is—that’s why. Thus we are led to entertain the Epistemic Gap theory of the existence of philosophy (precedents of it may be found in Kant and others).

This may seem to answer our puzzle, though it would need a lot of spelling out, but there is a nagging question that remains, viz. why are we thus ignorant? Only if we knew the answer to that question would we know why philosophy exists. Someone might say, “Of course we don’t know what these fundamental features of reality are—that’s precisely why we are philosophically at sea—but that just restates the question, i.e. why do philosophical problems exist?” And indeed it is a real question why the things that are so familiar to us are so removed from our understanding: why should time, say, be so elusive, so maddeningly opaque? We don’t even know whether it can exist in a world without change! Our ignorance about what things are seems gratuitous, strange, and hard to explain. Beings not afflicted with such ignorance might well not recognize philosophy as a separate subject, finding it all plain sailing, so there must be a question as to why we are so afflicted—but we have no good answer to that question. Maybe it has something to do with evolutionary demands (doesn’t everything?) but that is at best a theory sketch or chapter title. And then there is this question: is it really credible that knowledge of what these things are would instantly terminate philosophical uncertainty? Could it not simply accentuate the problems? Now that we see exactly what consciousness is we are struck dumb about how it relates to the brain (just as Descartes was when he concluded that the essence of mind is thought not extension). Our philosophical ignorance is really a very peculiar thing, not at all easy to penetrate: we have no idea of what gives rise to it. Even if the Epistemic Gap theory is true, the gap is quite mysterious, unlike other epistemic gaps, an incomprehensible type of ignorance. So we don’t know why philosophy exists—why the human mind is susceptible to it. Why is there such a thing as philosophy?

[1] See The View From Nowhere (1986). I’m not saying Nagel explicitly adopts such a view of the nature of philosophy, but the view might be inspired by his ideas.

[2] Subjectively the Muller-Lyer lines look unequal in length while objectively we know they are equal, but this is not a philosophical problem.  Subjectively the Sun appears to rise in the morning while objectively we know it doesn’t rise at all, but again this is not a philosophical problem.

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