Morality, Relativism, and Supervenience

Morality, Relativism, and Supervenience

I find it hard to believe that the point I am about to make has not been made before, so I state that it must have been. If so, this may serve as a welcome repetition, for the point is a good one. It is that moral supervenience and moral relativism are inconsistent with each other. The former says that moral predications supervene on the natural, descriptive, or factual properties of the act in question: if one, then necessarily the other. Nothing needs to be added to get to the moral predication; in no possible world does the entailment fail to hold. But moral relativism claims that the underlying non-moral properties are not sufficient for the moral ones, since the latter are dependent on the attitudes of a given individual or group of individuals. The former properties are intrinsic to the act or state of affairs, but the latter are relational: the moral property is relative to a community, and so can vary from community to community depending on the attitudes held. But that is inconsistent with the assertion that the moral supervenes on the intrinsic non-moral properties of the act. For moral opinions and other attitudes are not supervenient on those underlying non-moral properties (e.g., the fact that someone is in pain). Opinions and facts are not necessarily correlated, but values and facts are. Being good is supervenient on non-value facts, but being thought to be good is not—that depends on the properties of the appraiser. Thus, moral relativism is inconsistent with moral supervenience.

So what–can’t we just give up supervenience? The inconsistency is certainly a pause-giving result, but is abandoning supervenience available to a relativist otherwise demolished? But how could it be that two situations are exactly alike in all non-moral respects and yet differ morally? Don’t right and wrong, good and bad, depend on the facts of the case? If not, they are worthless categories; we may as well just talk only about attitudes and get it over with. Then we have the anodyne doctrine that people can have different attitudes towards the same thing, perhaps because of ignorance; we don’t have the startling claim that one and the same thing can be both good and bad (at the same time). We don’t have to say that pain can be bad here but not bad elsewhere, despite being exactly the same in both places (except location). Supervenience certainly has common sense on its side; relativism is mind-numbingly revisionary—and for what? But we can say more: we can cite the factual properties of a situation in order to justify a moral evaluation, but that won’t work under relativism. We can say that the existence of pain justifies the assertion that it’s wrong to stick a pin in someone, but the relativist can’t say that—he has to say that the justification for not sticking a pin in someone is that other people are not of the opinion that pain is bad. That is what the moral evaluation depends upon not the fact of pain itself. The normal practice of moral evaluation collapses once supervenience is denied, because it is really neither here nor there what people think about pain; what matters is pain itself. So, supervenience can’t be rationally abandoned. But it is inconsistent with moral relativism. Therefore, moral relativism must be rejected. Values are not the same as opinions about them.[1]

[1] This is really an absolute truism, hardly worth enunciating, but relativism has a remarkable hold over the callow mind, so truisms must be treated as contentious doctrines to be ingeniously argued for. Why morality should excite such skepticism I don’t know. No one thinks that we should give up supervenience about the mind because people have minds only relative to a community! No one thinks that being in pain depends on whether people think you are in pain. That would be insane. Yet they think that pain’s being bad depends on people thinking it’s bad. Pain is bad no matter what some idiot happens to think.

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Is Stupidity Innate?

Is Stupidity Innate?

This is a question people are too polite to raise. We can just about ask whether intelligence is innate, wholly or partly, but please don’t ask whether some people are born stupid! Can it be responsibly maintained that some people are condemned by their genes to a life of stupidity? And here I mean common-or-garden stupidity, not the clinical kind; I am referring to ordinary adults and their opinions—political, scientific, philosophical, ethical, practical. Some people are very intelligent compared to others as a result of their genes; could some people be very stupid compared to others as a result of their genes? Could you be born a stupid person, as opposed to acquiring stupidity from the environment in which you were raised? Is there a stupidity gene that some people have and others don’t?

It might be replied that this is trivially true, since some people are less intelligent genetically than others; if we call these individuals “stupid”, then, yes, they are innately stupid (i.e., on the low end of the intelligence spectrum). Just as some people are born brighter than others, so some are born stupider than others, with some just straight-out stupid. But that is not what I mean; I mean “stupid” in its colloquial sense. Admittedly, this is not easy to pin down (as is the concept of intelligence): the OED gives us only “lacking intelligence or common sense”. But what is stupidity more positively characterized—what is its specific nature? Interestingly, Roget’s Thesaurus gives us a long list of synonyms, which I will not repeat, thus suggesting a clear and distinct psychological trait identifiable by any normal person. What emerges is that stupidity is poor judgment, proneness to error, rashness of opinion, foolishness, unthinkingness, gullibility, unreflectiveness, and logical ineptitude. People are often said to be stupid in matters of love and money, but also in their political attitudes (various kinds of prejudice, in particular). I think we know it when we see it. I want to know whether thisconstellation of traits might be innate—caused by a stupidity gene. It would be possible to have this gene but be quite intelligent otherwise; there might even be stupid geniuses! You could be super-smart at math but remarkably stupid in politics or practical matters.

From a lifetime of observation, I am convinced that stupidity is likely inborn. You just have to talk to people to notice it. It seems to run in families, like its opposite. It is correlated with other traits that are plausibly regarded as innate—emotionality, conformity, impulsiveness, verbal crudity, anger, hot-headedness. People who latch onto wild conspiracy theories fit the profile perfectly, as well as people who never see anything coming (like Austin Powers about Liberace’s gayness). They also seem humorless, or at least humorously simple-minded. It seems like a positive lack, if I may put it so; it’s as if they have something definite in them that makes them stupid, and they like it that way. There doesn’t seem to be much intermediate ground between them and their less stupid brethren; you are either stupid or not stupid, never a bit stupid or only when tired or drunk. Stupidity doesn’t come in degrees, like intelligence in the IQ sense. It is a kind of congenital blindness (“reason blindness”). There is a marked reluctance to reason from facts and logic. It doesn’t align exactly with the right and left in politics; there is plenty of left-wing stupidity (and tons of right-wing stupidity). It is really like a genetically determined syndrome. Logic is powerless against it; facts wash over the victim’s countenance. Vehemence replaces cogency. I would like to see a psychologist do some research on this subject instead of focusing on intelligence all the time; twin studies would be the place to start.[1] I don’t think we would find any racial or national preponderance of the stupidity gene; I think we would find a common incidence across peoples and cultures. What is the proportion of people that harbor the stupidity gene? Now that is an incendiary question: I am going to say anything between 30% and 70%, but that estimate may be influenced by spending my life among professional philosophers (cooks might do better). In any case, it’s a hypothesis to ponder; it would be stupid not to.[2]

[1] Do identical twins reared apart score high on a stupidity test if one does? Does stupidity appear earlier ontogenetically than can be explained by environmental factors? Can it be remedied by intensive anti-stupidity training?

[2] I suspect that this is an extremely taboo subject for a number of reasons, some good and some not so good. Who would want to take part in a study of human stupidity? Who would want to be told they scored high in the stupidity rankings? How might such information be used? What if the CEO of an important company were to be revealed as really quite stupid? What if people from Yorkshire were to be rated as markedly stupid? We might need a euphemism for marketing purposes, say “neuro-variant”.

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Law and Morality

Law and Morality

In a morally ideal society, there are no laws. Everyone does what they should out of the goodness of their heart not fear of legal consequences. The whole apparatus of law does not exist—police, courts, lawyers, prisons, etc. It sounds wonderful: no one steals, murders, rapes, cheats on their taxes, speeds, or litters. Laws exist only because people are morally imperfect, evil, sinful, egotistical, greedy, depraved. They are not good in themselves, merely useful in curbing immoral behavior. We would do without them if we could. It is not a source of pride to be “a nation of laws” because this is an admission that the nation is not “a nation of moral right”; a better nation would be to be a “nation of nice”. Laws are an indication of moral weakness or wildness.

But it is worse than that. Consider a society wholly ruled by laws: everything that is morally wrong is covered by a law, perhaps a stringent one. In such a society no one does anything right because it is right but because it is illegal to do anything else. Or rather: morally right action is overdetermined motivationally, with prudence predominating. Suppose children are raised to respect the law but not instructed in morality; any innate morality they possess withers away in such an environment. Suppose that moral thoughts and emotions scarcely exist in this society, replaced by a fear of laws. Wouldn’t that be a horrible travesty of a human being? Wouldn’t it be spiritual death? What would art be like, or friendship, or love. Right and wrong would be swallowed up by legal and illegal. Human life would be one long battle with the law—evading it, being punished by it. Moral consciousness (conscience) would be replaced by legal calculation. It would be a kind of hell. A nation of laws and only laws is a dystopia of the soul. It would be a complete distortion or deformation of the soul, a destruction of human nature. If offered the prospect of such a society, we would do well to decline the offer. We might even prefer a lawless society if morality could thrive in it—morality being the thing that keeps that society on the rails.

I think we can enunciate the following (natural) law: the more a society is governed by laws, the less it is governed by morality. The more morality exists, the less need is there of laws. This is not a paradox but a logical consequence. Laws are proxies for moral precepts, so they lead to the attenuation of such precepts, even to the point of extinction. Morality goes extinct when laws take over its territory. Legal prudence takes over moral altruism. Conscience gives way to self-interest. Doing wrong is no longer an occasion for guilt and shame but merely for self-centered regret (“I wish I been more cunning”). And what happens to doing good? It degenerates into legality: the action wasn’t legally punishable. That is a pretty thin emotion and hardly a reason for (proper) pride. Laws eat away at the moral core of a person. They give us less scope for doing good and dilute our reasons for avoiding doing bad. Laws tend to destroy the moral center of human life by converting altruism into egoism. They are really bad if overly indulged in. And the point is not merely theoretical: casual inspection reveals that this process is going on right now. People in a certain country (I won’t name it) have lost their grip on morality and ceded it to the law. They have little ability to talk intelligently about morality, still less to engage privately in genuine moral reasoning. They are apt to be moral relativists or nihilists or simply oblivious to moral discourse. Fortunately, we still have a society in which law has not yet penetrated to every corner of human life, particularly personal life, but we are well on the way to fixing that problem. Imagine if marriage or friendship or parenting were subject to laws at every level—for example, marital rows are now illegal, friendships are legally enforced, and parents are forbidden by law from teaching their children right from wrong (the law has taken that over that function). As things are, morality no longer governs our business dealings or property rights or divorce proceedings; imagine a world in which the law also controls everything else that happens between people. Imagine if promise-breaking were punishable by six months in jail, if you are caught (otherwise you have nothing to worry about). The essential point is that morality and the law have quite different psychologies: morality is about our duties to others, altruism, not inflicting suffering, basic human decency—whereas the law is about self-interest, connivance, not getting caught, taking advantage of other people where it is legally permissible. You can evade the law, but you can’t evade morality—conscience will always “catch” you. We don’t need more laws (and less morality); we need fewer laws (and more morality). We need to educate our children in moral right and wrong not legal prohibitions. The ideal is not the universal rule of law but lawless moral integrity. We need to get rid of the law (defund it). Of course, I don’t mean go cold turkey on the law; I mean we should re-direct our efforts to make the law unnecessary. The law is at best a necessary evil not a desirable end in itself. It is not civilization but the decline of civilization, properly understood. Just think of the freedom you would feel if there were no law to fear, with all its errors and rigidity and injustice. It is a terrible burden on the human spirit not a welcome helping hand. No police, no judges, no prisons–just morally refined individuals doing what they know is right. Is that our future or just more legal overreach? We want a world without doctors because there is no illness; likewise, we want a world without lawyers because there is no wrongdoing (or just a tiny bit here and there). We want the unpaid hand of morality not the overpaid agent of the law. As it is, we have a faltering grasp of morality combined with a bloated system of law. The latter should be phased out as the former regains its authority (think of human society before laws but tightly controlled by morality). The problem is that as law gains more of a stranglehold on our psychology and behavior, the less power morality possesses, to the point where it becomes in danger of extinction. Morality and law are more rivals than collaborators, as things stand. The law is about what you can get away with; morality is about what must be done. I thus advocate moral maximalism and legal minimalism as a guiding principle.

A bonus is that we get a smaller state under the recommended social system. A large part of the power of the state derives from its legal apparatus: its legislature, its courts, its prisons. This is expensive to run and potentially oppressive. It enables the government to exercise power over its citizens, especially when allied with the military. A society with a minimal (or nonexistent) legal system is cheaper and less oppressive; morality costs nothing. The stronger morality is in a society, the less need there is for law, and hence the less need for a powerful government. Virtue undermines big government, or would if it were sufficiently prevalent (imagine if everyone observed speed limits from moral conviction). The difficulty is that most people tend to obey the law not their own conscience (if they have one), and that means they do what they think they can get away with not what they recognize as right. The optimistic view is that the law is just a passing phase in human history, destined to be replaced by a more developed moral sense; the pessimistic view is that the law will eventually strangle morality and leave something truly terrible in its place (law-abiding moral idiots).[1]

[1] It might be said that crime is part of human nature and therefore ineradicable. I think this is not true: morality is innate and therefore part of human nature, as has been persuasively argued; but crime is acquired and hence localized. Moral motivation is a genetic given, but criminal motivation is a result of upbringing (though there may be predisposing genetic factors). Crime can in principle be eliminated without revision of human nature, but morality is here to stay, short of genetic alteration. Laws are imposed, morality is original. This does not, however, prevent law from replacing morality psychologically, since genetic programs can be suppressed. There is nothing natural or inevitable about crime. Laws are not a necessary condition of good behavior.

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Romantic Overtures

Romantic Overtures

We really need to get tougher on romance, especially at universities. As things stand, people can make romantic overtures to other people and face no consequences. They can even make declarations of love and get away with it! This can lead to all sorts of discomfort and loss of focus on one’s studies, not to mention favoritism. It turns the learning environment into a yearning environment. Micro-affections flourish. Reciprocation may occur. This has to be stopped, especially when there is a “power imbalance”. I propose a simple and humane solution: all romantic overtures must be reported to the authorities, and repeat romantic overtures will warrant expulsion. This applies to both faculty and students (no student “crushes”). It should put paid to the scourge of romantic feelings on the part of people who should be concentrating on academic study. And don’t think you can get away with warm smiles or winking or anything construable as evincing romantic feelings; we will come after you. Romantic overtures, however subtle and loosely defined, are therefore banned henceforward, on pain of disciplinary action.

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No Reply

No Reply

I recently wrote to the University of Miami philosophy department asking when, if ever, the ban on my visiting the campus would be lifted (I live five minutes from there). I also asked what the reason for the ban was. I got no reply. Then I wrote offering to make a donation to the department in honor of Ed Erwin, to be awarded to a deserving graduate student. I got no reply. I wonder what would happen if I offered to give the department a million dollars no questions asked.

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Bad Bunny

Bad Bunny

I was looking forward to the half-time performance from Bad Bunny (less so the Superbowl itself). In the event my response was divided: I approved of it politically and personally (many of my best friends are Latin) and I really wanted to like the music more, but Latin music has little appeal for me. Also, I don’t care for rap of any kind (except Walk This Way and Bust a Move). Mind you, I don’t care for the vast majority of contemporary popular music and still less for the music I was first subjected to (Frank Sinatra, Bing Crosby, Perry Como). It’s the same for most contemporary popular culture—movies, comedy, medical dramas, game shows. I have very restricted tastes. I do like the Bad Bunny phenomenon—his global success, his love of Puerto Rico, etc. I’d rather listen to him than country music any day. I like the vibe, but the music sounds tinny to me. Watching the game itself reminded me of why I don’t follow American football (I don’t follow British football either). Anyway, I thoroughly approve of Mr. Bunny and I wish him well; I wish we could have a talk about music, and I promise to play the drums for him and sing Real Wild Child and Peggy Sue.

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Can Dogs Talk?

Can Dogs Talk?

I watched a very interesting documentary last night on PBS about whether dogs can talk. Of course, they do talk—they talk dog. There could be an interesting documentary on whether humans can talk…dog language. They might to a limited degree, but not as well as dogs. But the documentary was about whether dogs can talk human, i.e., whether they are bilingual. Everyone knows that dogs understand many human words (from 80 to 200 in some cases), but the question is whether they can communicate with humans using human words (they do pretty well with dog words). A new technology allows them to press buttons with their paws that make word sounds—food, walk, etc. They have gotten quite good at this, it turns out. I wish to make two points about this research. The first is that the reason dogs don’t talk to us in English (say) is that they lack the vocal apparatus—not the cerebral apparatus. They just don’t have the right kind of larynx and mouth; their brains are up to the task. Their understanding of English is not hooked into their motor systems in such a way as to produce speech; it isn’t a cognitive problem. A human with a damaged vocal tract might have the cognitive capacity to speak but not the anatomy, and dogs are like that. The reason they don’t speak is not like the reason trees don’t speak—that they are linguistically incompetent. In principle, we could fit them with a vocal prosthesis that enables them to convert their linguistic understanding into spoken words. Then you could literally talk to your dog and it would reply in kind: you, “What do you want?”; dog, “Walk”. This would completely change our relationship to dogs and it is within the bounds of possibility. It might even change our whole attitude to animals (see Dr Dolittle). They have the mental power in them already. This is quite predictable from the fact that they understand human speech (to some degree).

The second point is less technology-fictiony but more interesting. It doesn’t follow from the fact that dogs don’t or can’t talk out loud that they can’t talk at all. Not once did the documentary mention the possibility, which might be empirically verified, that dogs could be talking to themselves. I am morally certain that they do. They hear the English words in their minds, much as we do. For their minds follow their ears, which are exceptionally acute. I wouldn’t be at all surprised to learn that when they want to go for a walk, they hear the word “walk” in their head, perhaps quite insistently; they just can’t say it. Or they can’t say it outwardly; inwardly, they might be saying it quite clearly. They could be having inner speech, with meaning, in English—along the lines of “Boy, could I use a walk right now!” or in dog English “Walk-walk!”. They can talk in English internally using auditory imagery. In fact, they have been doing this for centuries and in many human languages—they are veritable (silent) chatterboxes. Perhaps some scientist could do some brain scans to test for this. Do children go through a similar phase before they begin outer vocalization? It is a wonderful thought that your dog, your best friend, is hearing your voice inwardly all the time, perhaps conversing with you in some primitive way—who knows what the dog imagination is capable of? We know that dogs dream and the odds are that they experience auditory vocal imagery: maybe they converse with their owners while dreaming. So, actually, they are far more linguistically active than the researchers believe; it just takes place in their inner world. Do they dream of asking their owners to take them for a walk—in English? That is not disproven by their inability to vocalize outwardly like a human. Can dogs talk? Yes, they do it all the time and have been for thousands of years, but secretly. Perhaps this is why they pick up the trick with the buttons quite quickly—because it simply externalizes what has been going on internally their whole life.[1]

[1] Of course, no philosopher was consulted in this documentary. But, you know, we can actually talk. Chomsky makes the point that most human linguistic activity takes place in silent speech not in overt behavior.

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Possible Language Semantics

Possible Language Semantics

The theory of meaning is supposed to concern the semantics of our language: in virtue of what does human language have the meaning it has? But do all possible languages share the same semantics? Might a semantic theory that is incorrect for our language correctly describe the semantics of some alien language? If so, what are the implications of that fact? This bears on the question of whether meaning is a natural kind or is more like an artifact (a human construct). I shall urge the latter view: meaning can be multiply realized, has no deep real essence, and can be varied at will—like furniture or marriage ceremonies.

Let’s start with something simple: the semantics of names. It has been argued at length that names in our common human language are not synonymous with descriptions, at any rate certain types of descriptions. Let’s accept that. But does it imply that in other languages the description theory of names has to be false? Clearly not: there are such things as descriptive names, stipulated to be so. It might be that speakers always have in mind a synonymous description for any name they use; they use names simply to save breath. This is what they have decided—or what they have become accustomed to. It is up to them what they mean by their words. Similarly, speakers of Martian might expressly deny that their definite descriptions obey Russell’s theory; they subscribe to Strawson’s theory (they may be incompetent with quantifiers). Or what if a positivistic population subscribed to a verification conditions theory of meaning, viewing anything else as meaningless? They refrain from saying anything unverifiable, on pain of imprisonment for repeat offenders. Being good positivists, they never utter metaphysical sentences; perhaps their brains prevent them from constructing unverifiable sentences. Then, wouldn’t it be true that their language obeys a verificationist semantics? Or suppose the Venusians are deeply wedded to possible worlds, talking of them quantificationally all the time; their linguists are possible worlds semanticists to a man. Wouldn’t it be reasonable to attribute this semantics to their modal words? It may well be that they consciously intend such an ontology in their modal talk. What about a nation of Platonists who fervently believe their predicates denote Platonic universals—wouldn’t it be correct to attribute this semantics to their words (whether or not there really are such things)? Or consider an imaginatively rich population who have mental images for every word they utter (unlike us): couldn’t these images form the meaning they attach to their words? So long as the assigned entities can be combined according to syntactic rules to form meanings of whole sentences, almost anything would do, even ordinary objects. It’s the form that matters not the substance. What if an emotional group spoke only expressively—no assertions of truth-evaluable sentences? Couldn’t they do this, so that the semantics of their language is purely expressive? It’s a free country and all that. A certain population might restrict themselves to a Tarski-Davidson semantics—and good luck to them. This bunch would speak a language for which Tarski’s semantics is true. There might be Montague languages or Carnap languages or Austin languages or Russell languages or Grice languages or Tractatus languages or Investigations languages. The more the merrier. Maybe we don’t speak these languages, but they do—this is what they mean (and their sentences too).

Thus, the nature of meaning can vary from one possible language to another, as a matter of principle. Syntax can vary from one language to another, and so can phonology, and so can pragmatics—so why not semantics? Because languages are artifacts, like musical forms or fashions or dwellings. So long as the words can be used to communicate (serve this function), they have meaning. They employ different means to the same end. Combinatorial power needs to be added too, but it doesn’t much matter what gets combined. The correct semantic theory is a contingent matter, resulting from history, biology, decision, stipulation, and happenstance. Meaning is like the law or means of conveyance or types of dance. The Tractatus and the Investigations might both be true—of different populations. So long as the language is logically possible, someone could speak that way; and no one denies that such languages are logically possible, just incorrect for our language. Aliens might communicate using electromagnetic waves—so what? As long as the words convey the right signals into another brain we have meaning. It’s not like water and H2O, where the former is necessarily the latter.

It is therefore misleading to speak of the theory of meaning, as if all conceivable meaning must be identically composed. In some languages there might be just one sense for any given reference, or meaningful words that are never used, or mental images corresponding to logical connectives, or languages that are never employed to communicate but only to think with. No doubt there will be some common features such as combinatorial potential or meaningfulness, but the variety of existing semantic theories might be actually applicable somewhere—from image theories to direct reference theories. It may even be that our language obeys different theories in different parts, as has been contended by some theorists: some parts are all about truth conditions, other parts are purely expressive, yet other parts are merely punctuational (Wittgenstein thought something like this, language being a family resemblance concept for him). There is no one thing that every instance of meaning has to be. Meaning is essentially heterogeneous. The various theories may not be true of our language (as a whole anyway), but they are true in some possible world of some languages. Are all languages even referential—mightn’t some speakers use them just for inner reverie, referring to nothing, or just to soothing shades of blue? Meanings are made not found, and they come in great variety (See The Varieties of Meaning by Professor John Smith, PhD). In some possible languages sentences really do denote truth-values (a la Frege), while in others words stand only for imagistic ideas (a la Locke). It all depends on the speakers. Meaning is protean.[1]

[1] One can’t help feeling that theorists of meaning, though discussing only human languages (European ones at that), really had their sights set on all possible languages; they never say, “Of course, this only applies to human language—other possible languages might have quite different kinds of meaning”. They tacitly assume semantic uniformity. How does the linguistic turn fare once we recognize that meaning is diverse and heterogeneous across possible worlds? How philosophically significant is the philosophy of language if meaning is as variable as life itself? Different types of mind produce different types of language. Human language reflects human nature, not Martian or Venusian. What about octopus semantics?

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